Security Officer Mock Test

All our mock tests are password protected to ensure a secure and controlled testing environment. If you have not received the access details for the mock tests, please reach out to Nepbridge or your dedicated tutor for assistance.

We want to emphasise that participating in mock tests can greatly benefit for your exam preparation. These practice tests are designed to help you become familiar with the format, structure, and types of questions you may encounter. By engaging in mock tests, you can assess your knowledge, identify areas for improvement and enhance your overall exam performance.

We are here to support you throughout your testing journey. Please contact us if you have any confusion.

Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 1D
Module 2
Module 3

Module 1A

/100

Module 1A - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1A - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) Which of the following is an element that does not pose a risk in the context of working alone?

A) Lack of communication

B) Lack of welfare facilities

C) Lack of conversation

D) Lack of support

2 / 100

2) What is the full form of AI?

A) Artificial Intel

B) Assignment Instructions

C) Augmented Intelligence

D) Argument Incitement

3 / 100

3) What is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Increased competition among colleagues

B) Increased individual recognition

C) Reduced need for security staff

D) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

4 / 100

4) Security operatives must look after vulnerable people in order to:

A) Stop them from being arrested

B) Stop the police from coming to the premises

C) Prevent them from becoming victims of crime

D) Save their employer’s reputation

5 / 100

5) Why should we only make an arrest when there's no other option left?

A) Because the police officers tend to prefer making arrests themselves

B) Because the personal safety of a security operative can be put at risk

C) Because the security operative would have to complete an incident report

D) Because the manager of the premises would have to ensure the safety and security of the detained person

6 / 100

6) A case of verbal communication can be exemplified by:

A) Textual message on cellular phone

B) Electronic message sent in Morse code

C) Voicemail message

D) Log-book entry

7 / 100

7) It is important for an employee to discuss with colleagues how an incident was successfully resolved as:

A) The employee can know their colleagues’ lack of experience

B) It prohibits the employer from criticizing the incident response

C) It allows colleagues to learn from an example of best practice

D) It enables the employee to finish the written report

8 / 100

8) Non-verbal communication can involve:

A) Voicemails

B) Facial expression

C) Tone of voice

D) Technical language

9 / 100

9) What kind of arrest can a security worker perform?

A) Security industry arrest

B) Citizen’s arrest

C) Taking into custody with a warrant

D) Police take into custody

10 / 100

10) What is most likely an indicator of suspicious activity?

A) People inquiring about directions

B) Someone clicking photographs of their friends

C) An individual jogging around a structure

D) People trying to avoid being seen on CCTV

11 / 100

11) A fire involving burning petrol would be categorized as what type of fire?

A) Class A

B) Class C

C) Class B

D) Class D

12 / 100

12) In a crisis, people may get scared and rush toward tight exits. This is likely to lead to:

A) Fight or Flight

B) Shivering

C) Surging

D) Crushing

13 / 100

13) Which of the following behaviours is most likely to indicate a sexual predator?

A) A drunk person leaving with a group of intoxicated people.

B) A solo performer on the dance floor

C) A person stumbling and staggering around the venue

D) A heavily intoxicated person leaving with s sober person.

14 / 100

14) What are the three factors of the fire triangle?

A) Heat, Food, Oxygen

B) Harmful, Fire, Oxygen

C) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen

D) Heat, Oxygen, Fire

15 / 100

15) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Entertainment websites and apps

B) Social media platforms

C) Online gaming forums

D) Colleagues and management

16 / 100

16) A danger of working alone in the private security field is:

A) Teamwork challenges

B) Having CCTV as a backup plan in case of other security measures failing

C) Being isolated and having to rely on technology for back up

D) Maintaining regular communication with the supervisor

17 / 100

17) What is the initial step in creating a 5-part statement?

A) Set the scene

B) Introduction

C) Close the statement

D) Chronological account

18 / 100

18) If a suspicious package is discovered, the initial response that should be undertaken is to:

A) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

B) the appropriate place for this discussion

C) Inspect it and try to figure out what is inside

D) Contact army bomb disposal officers

19 / 100

19) What are the risks faced by working alone?

A) Nothing

B) Feeling Drowsy

C) Becoming bored

D) Injuries/Illness that may require medical attention

20 / 100

20) For a security operative, the most appropriate interpretation of the term 'run, hide, and tell' is to evacuate:

A) The attackers, leaving all others behind

B) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

C) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

D) Others from the danger, while staying behind

21 / 100

21) What are some of the ways that sexual predators may behave?

A) Preferring own company

B) Closely watching vulnerable people

C) Texting someone

D) Being muscular

22 / 100

22) Marauding terror attacks include the use of:

A) Improvised explosive devices

B) Firearms

C) Chemicals

D) Vehicles as a weapon

23 / 100

23) One of the primary motivations for documenting notes during or shortly after an incident is due to:

A) The details recorded by the operator are more likely to be accurate

B) It saves colleagues the hassle of writing a report later in the shift

C) It is unlikely that the operator will remember to write a report later

D) The supervisor must review the incident immediately afterwards

24 / 100

24) What is the preferred ink color for record keeping?

A) Green

B) Blue

C) Black

D) Red

25 / 100

25) What should you do after a small accident happens at work?

A) A certified first aider should always be present

B) Emergency medical supplies should be collected

C) An accident book should be completed

D) An ambulance should always be called

26 / 100

26) An employee should think about conflicts in order to:

A) Determine whether they have chosen the right career

B) Assess the prosecution risk

C) Assess the disciplinary risk

D) Help deal with future incidents more effectively

27 / 100

27) If something is proven to be suspicious, a security worker must:

A) Do not move until the bomb squad arrive

B) Do not leave your position until the emergency services arrive

C) Evacuate using the safety exit

D) Photograph the suspicious object for the disposal experts

28 / 100

28) A main objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Eliminate criminal elements from the industry

B) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) Decrease the number of security personnel in the industry

29 / 100

29) The most likely consequence of invacuation is that:

A) The area is protected

B) There is a physical barrier between you and the threat

C) There are limited escape routes

D) People are placed directly in risk

30 / 100

30) Assignment instructions give you directions on what to do.

A) Regarding insurance

B) On the site’s roles and duties

C) For only the managers of a site

D) That enable security officers to learn about staff

31 / 100

31) The primary job of the Security Industry Authority (SIA) is to:

A) Manage business owner's conduct

B) Uphold the law and protect the public in the absence of police

C) License some roles within the private security industry

D) Regulate local taxi drivers by licensing

32 / 100

32) What is the kind of permanent setup that has pipes with heads that turn on to stop a fire and keep it from spreading?

A) Riser

B) Flooding System

C) Sprinkler

D) Integrated hose reel

33 / 100

33) A workplace danger is probably:

A) Air cooling

B) A dangerous substance

C) Vivid lighting

D) Un heatedness

34 / 100

34) To make sure private information stays safe, a security worker needs to:

A) Talk to your family about work-related problems

B) Publish work-related information on social media

C) Maintain confidentiality

D) Talk about work-related topics in a place where others can hear you

35 / 100

35) If a suspicious package is discovered, the first action that should be taken is to:

A) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

B) Contact army bomb disposal officers

C) Investigate it to see what's inside

D) Another location

36 / 100

36) Upon detecting a fire, the initial step a security operative should take is to:

A) Move away from the fire

B) Stay calm and wait for help to arrive

C) Start evacuating the premises

D) Raise the alarm

37 / 100

37) Which of the following roles is not considered a licensed security role?

A) Door Supervisor

B) Event steward

C) Close protection operative

D) Cash and valuables in transit operative

38 / 100

38) A security officer who is making an arrest is using the authority described in:

A) A common law

B) Data protection law

C) Health and safety law

D) Personal safety law

39 / 100

39) Prohibition signs are:

A) Green and white

B) Blue and white

C) Yellow and black

D) Red and white

40 / 100

40) One of the guiding principles of providing excellent customer service is to:

A) Instruct the customer to follow the prescribed steps

B) Always question the customer’s viewpoint

C) Always consider the organization's perspective

D) Create a rapport with the customer as soon as possible

41 / 100

41) The most accurate definition of the threat level 'substantial' is that an attack is:

A) Unlikely

B) Likely

C) Assured

D) Unexpected

42 / 100

42) What does the term "arrest" mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To escort someone to safety

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To take away someone's freedom

43 / 100

43) Who should a security officer call first for a small first-aid problem?

A) NHS Direct

B) The supervisor

C) The health and safety manager

D) A qualified first-aider

44 / 100

44) What is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Walk calmly away

B) Fight or flight

C) Freeze and surrender

D) Seek out a crowded place

45 / 100

45) The duty of verifying that an area is free from obstructions during a fire alarm lies with:

A) Security officer in charge

B) Local fire and rescue officer

C) Company human resources manager

D) Building’s fire marshal

46 / 100

46) The 1974 Health and Safety at Work Act is for:

A) Employers only

B) Companies only

C) Employees only

D) Both employers and employees

47 / 100

47) When there's an urgent situation, some individuals might not want to go. This is known as:

A) Freezing

B) Denial

C) Surging

D) Flight

48 / 100

48) According to the SIA’s standards for behaviour for security operatives’, a security operative should be:

A) Open to working

B) Computer literate

C) Physically strong

D) Professional

49 / 100

49) The aim of establishing effective evacuation procedures is to:

A) Ensure that the fire service can easily access the venue

B) Ensure everyone goes to the same fire assembly point

C) Help to ensure the safety of yourself and others

D) Optimize fire marshals' search time

50 / 100

50) Among these options, what is not a good enough reason to arrest someone?

A) Destroying property

B) Causing injury to other

C) Refusing a search

D) Causing injury to themselves

51 / 100

51) The right way to make an arrest is to:

A) Contact the police, detain the individual and explain the reason for the arrest

B) Detain the individual, call the police and explain the reason for the arrest.

C) Explain the reason for the arrest, detain the individual and call the police

D) Detain the individual, explain the reason for the arrest and call the police

52 / 100

52) If someone requires treatment for a minor injury, a security operative should first contact:

A) A doctor

B) Their supervisor

C) A paramedic

D) A first-aider

53 / 100

53) If a security operative is made aware of a vulnerable female following a domestic argument, the most appropriate action to take is to contact:

A) The local office of the Samaritans

B) St John Ambulance

C) The local council

D) The local police station

54 / 100

54) If there is a security danger, a security officer should:

A) Inform the local MP of the security threat

B) Cut back on patrols to allow operatives to focus on other priorities

C) Keep the emergency services updated every hour on the situation

D) Maintain organised search procedures

55 / 100

55) Which of the following is an approach that does not contribute to keeping personal information secure?"

A) Meeting the legal obligations of data protection legislation

B) Keeping information secret

C) Following the rules and regulations of the organization

D) Discussing work issues outside the workplace

56 / 100

56) What is a drawback or constraint associated with Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV)?

A) Large camera lens

B) Widespread camera monitoring

C) Small camera lens

D) Poor camera coverage

57 / 100

57) According to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, all premises should be:

A) Clean and safe

B) Secure and protected

C) Inspected for damp every 3 months

D) Checked for noise pollution every 6 months

58 / 100

58) Which of the following is a non-criminal case?

A) Theft

B) Trespass

C) Robery

D) Fraud

59 / 100

59) An indicator of possible abuse is:

A) Insecurity

B) Assurance

C) Assertiveness

D) Arrogance

60 / 100

60) Which of the following is the best definition of an ‘occurrence’?

A) Something that may happen

B) Something that has happened

C) Chance of happening something

D) Risk of something happening

61 / 100

61) What element from the following can be eliminated to disrupt the fire triangle?

A) Foam

B) Fuel

C) Smoke

D) Powder

62 / 100

62) The security operator must write down clear and thorough notes about what happened.

A) At the time or as soon as practicable

B) When the operator has some extra time

C) At any time as long as it is before the end of the shift

D) Within the next 24 hours

63 / 100

63) Following involvement in a violent incident, it would be most advantageous for a staff member to seek support by:

A) Posting details of the incident on social media

B) Talking through the incident with colleagues

C) Sending a letter to the local MP

D) Celebrating with friends

64 / 100

64) What are the key things to keep in mind when dealing with customer needs?

A) We should not talk to customers

B) Make a good first impression

C) Customers are always wrong

D) Try and impress the customers who are better looking

65 / 100

65) Which of these things would be considered an urgent situation?

A) Crushed finger

B) Heart attack

C) Ankle sprain

D) Sunstroke

66 / 100

66) What is the first action that a security operative should take upon discovering a fire?

A) Tackle the fire with the appropriate extinguisher

B) Call the emergency services

C) Raise the alarm!

D) Open all doors and windows

67 / 100

67) A job done by a fire marshal is:

A) Counting all staff entering the building

B) Ensure that fire extinguishers are replenished when necessary

C) Enabling people to exit the building in the event of a fire

D) Checking that fire doors are unobstructed

68 / 100

68) What is the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

B) To submit complaints against security personnel

C) To report lost goods to law enforcement

D) To submit customer service suggestions

69 / 100

69) What is the meaning of the word "theft"?

A) Taking something without consent with no intention of returning it

B) Stealing something to later return it

C) Stealing using Force

D) Threatening to take something from someone

70 / 100

70) As per the behavioral standards established by the Security Industry Authority (SIA), a security operative is required to:

A) Use moderate language

B) Be physically strong

C) Be laid-back

D) Wear comfortable clothes

71 / 100

71) The goal of assignment instructions is to offer:

A) Guidelines about site duties and roles

B) Guidelines for site managers only

C) Insurance policy information

D) Staff details

72 / 100

72) Seeking assistance and support in the aftermath of an incident is essential

A) Reduces the chances of developing emotional problems

B) Is necessity of health and safety

C) Enable the likelihood of mental health issues

D) Is mandated by employment law

73 / 100

73) The probability of a fire occurring is likely decreased by:

A) Having good housekeeping practices

B) Implementing a comprehensive recycling system

C) Keeping waste close to public spaces

D) Getting appliances inspected every few years

74 / 100

74) A key objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) To regulate the private security industry, reduce crime and raise standards within the industry

B) Allow security companies to tender for public contracts

C) Provide detailed information on staff pay and condition

D) Stop police involvement in all security matters

75 / 100

75) Which of the following is an outcome of equal opportunities legislation in the workplace?

A) Fewer opportunities for men

B) Standardised pay scales

C) Increased pay for men

D) Shorter work hours for women

76 / 100

76) What is a critical factor in managing crowd control during an emergency?

A) Use force to move people

B) Stay calm and take charge

C) Do nothing

D) Shout at customers

77 / 100

77) Which of the following is a guiding principle of the Data Protection Act 2018?

A) Personal date shall not be kept for longer than is necessary

B) Personal data shall be freely transferred abroad

C) Personal data shall be used for marketing purposes

D) Personal data shall be subject to unlimited processing

78 / 100

78) The best thing about communicating well while taking care of customers is that it:

A) Ensure compliance by aggressors

B) Reduces incidents of conflict

C) Ensures all problems are solved

D) Makes the other person's life easier

79 / 100

79) What color shade of a sign indicate safe conditions?

A) Blue

B) Yellow

C) Green

D) Red

80 / 100

80) What are the three things needed for a fire to happen?

A) Oxygen, Fuel and a heat source

B) A heat source, air and oxygen

C) Air, Oxygen and fuel

D) A heat source, paper and wood.

81 / 100

81) What is an instance of a workplace hazard?

A) Correctly stored materials

B) Closed fire doors

C) Unblocked fire exits

D) Staircase

82 / 100

82) Which of the following is not likely to be completing by a security operative?

A) Log of keys

B) Training record

C) Sign-in book for visitors

D) Search log

83 / 100

83) When someone with disabilities asks for help, it's important to follow the company rules because:

A) They are a customer needing assistance

B) They may be testing my customer service skills

C) You may be being watched

D) You may be reported if you do not

84 / 100

84) Signs of suspicious activity may be indicated by:

A) A group of people dressed in bizarre clothing

B) A social gathering outside a bar

C) A group of men standing outside a railway station late at night

D) People walking around a building watching CCTV camera

85 / 100

85) After someone is arrested, the proof should be:

A) In proportion

B) Preserved

C) Devastated

D) Sanitized

86 / 100

86) Which of the following is performed on a daily basis?

A) Accident Record

B) Lost and found report

C) Documentation of an incident

D) Handover report

87 / 100

87) During a security alert, a security operative may be required to:

A) Notify the fire and ambulance service that they may be needed soon

B) Increase high-visibility patrols

C) Arrange for trained first – aid staff to be available

D) Tell to the local council

88 / 100

88) One goal of the Private Security Industry Act is to:

A) Improve conviction rates in the security industry

B) Raise standards within the security industry

C) Make sure security guards are first-aid certified

D) Provide a means of hiring security operatives

89 / 100

89) A situation that is right away dangerous to life or property is called:

A) A close call

B) An occurrence

C) A danger

D) An emergency

90 / 100

90) The key thing in a fire procedure that security staff should be aware of is:

A) How to ensure that alarms are working properly

B) How to maintain fire extinguishers in good working order

C) The location of fire exits and assembly points

D) The names of the fire marshals in the building

91 / 100

91) If someone is lying on the ground and looks like they touched an electrical cable while unconscious, the first thing to do is:

A) Start first-aid treatment immediately

B) Shake them hard

C) Turn off the power

D) Drape a blanket over them to keep them warm

92 / 100

92) Somebody shrugging their shoulders is an example of:

A) Non-verbal communication

B) Written communication

C) Oral communication

D) Verbal communication

93 / 100

93) The private security industry primarily exists to safeguard:

A) Privacy

B) Possessions

C) Boundaries

D) Life

94 / 100

94) What is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It never captures sensitive information

B) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) It is accessible to the general public at any time

D) It automatically restricts footage access for certain individuals

95 / 100

95) From the following, the best method of deterring anti – social behaviour is to carry out:

A) Covert patrols

B) Patrols at the same time every day

C) High-profile patrols

D) Lockdown patrols

96 / 100

96) What are the reasons for security operatives having a clear understanding of fire evacuation procedures?

A) To allow them to be the first to reach the assembly point and take a roll call

B) To enable them to re-enter the premises to search for anyone who is missing

C) To help them to judge whether the evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly

D) So that they can provide effective assistance in the event of an emergency

97 / 100

97) The most important explanation of 'run, hide, and tell' for a security worker is to get away.

A) Shielding others from danger, while remaining behind

B) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

C) The aggressors retreating, deserting everyone else

D) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

98 / 100

98) What is the abbreviation ABH short for?

A) Actual Bad Hurt

B) Actual Bodily Harm

C) Actual Body Hurt

D) Actual Bad Harm

99 / 100

99) When you go to court to share information, the most vital thing is that you are:

A) Wearing clothes appropriately

B) Polite

C) On-time

D) Prepared

100 / 100

100) A benefit of good teamwork is that it:

A) Promotes safety

B) Escalate pay

C) Cut down the need for assignment instructions

D) Lowers the requirement for risk assessments

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 1B

/100

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

C) It never captures sensitive information

D) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

2 / 100

2) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

B) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

C) Requesting assistance with directions

D) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

3 / 100

3) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

B) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

C) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

D) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

4 / 100

4) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

5 / 100

5) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Dishonesty

C) Indifference

D) Integrity

6 / 100

6) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Employee social gatherings outside work

D) Dress code policies

7 / 100

7) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

B) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

C) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

D) Photograph it and then throw it away

8 / 100

8) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A visitor log

B) An accident report

C) A duty sheet

D) A search register

9 / 100

9) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

C) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

10 / 100

10) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To show authority and control over the situation

B) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

11 / 100

11) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

C) May result in increased stress for the security operative

D) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

12 / 100

12) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

D) To add a formal tone to the conversation

13 / 100

13) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is possible but unlikely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is likely

14 / 100

14) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

B) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

C) Licensing is optional for all security companies

D) Licensing is only required for large security firms

15 / 100

15) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Deny there's any problem

B) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

C) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

D) Ignore their complaints directly

16 / 100

16) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

B) Report the injury to their employer

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Only document it if they require medical treatment

17 / 100

17) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

D) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

18 / 100

18) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

19 / 100

19) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

B) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

20 / 100

20) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

B) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

C) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

D) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

21 / 100

21) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

B) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

C) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

D) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

22 / 100

22) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Call their superior before taking any actions

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

D) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

23 / 100

23) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

B) To avoid complaints from individuals

C) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

D) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

24 / 100

24) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Temporary suspension from their job

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Civil or criminal prosecution

D) Verbal warning from their employer

25 / 100

25) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Removing the fuel

B) Adding more heat

C) Adding more oxygen

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

26 / 100

26) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

B) To ensure property is not damaged

C) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

D) To gather information about the offense

27 / 100

27) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

C) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

28 / 100

28) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

B) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

C) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

D) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

29 / 100

29) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) A noise complaint

B) Parking offenses

C) An assault

D) Littering

30 / 100

30) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Might be conducting suspicious activities

B) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

C) Are an employee running late for a meeting

D) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

31 / 100

31) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

D) Notify the victim's family before taking action

32 / 100

32) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

B) Recording shift instructions and break durations

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting found items

33 / 100

33) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

B) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

C) Giving the customer all of the information at once

D) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

34 / 100

34) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Entertainment websites and apps

B) Social media platforms

C) Colleagues and management

D) Online gaming communities

35 / 100

35) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

B) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

C) To avoid supporting each individual customer

D) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

36 / 100

36) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A notice posted on a door

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A facial expression showing confusion

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

37 / 100

37) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

C) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

D) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

38 / 100

38) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Reviewed by any staff member

B) Shared on social media for public awareness

C) Deleted after one month

D) Accessed only by authorized personnel

39 / 100

39) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

B) Check the building for any missing people

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

D) Proceed to the assembly point

40 / 100

40) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

B) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

C) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) To provide contact details for medical services

41 / 100

41) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Developing negative coping mechanisms

B) Increased motivation to perform better

C) Optimized focus on work projects

D) Enhanced team dynamics

42 / 100

42) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

B) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

C) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

D) To submit complaints against security personnel

43 / 100

43) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

B) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

C) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

44 / 100

44) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

B) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

C) Local councils handle all the cases

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

45 / 100

45) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Providing legal representation to businesses

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

46 / 100

46) What does the term "arrest" generally mean?

A) To take away someone's liberty

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To escort someone to safety

47 / 100

47) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

B) To improve employee productivity and performance

C) To estimate costs for safety equipment

D) To limit employee movement around the premises

48 / 100

48) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

B) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

C) To review an incident but take no reflective action

D) To completely overlook the incident and move on

49 / 100

49) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

B) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

C) Engaging the person with professional customer service

D) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

50 / 100

50) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

51 / 100

51) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Using hand gestures

C) Reading a text message aloud

D) Making a phone call

52 / 100

52) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Use of firearms

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Hacking into a company's computer systems

D) Release of dangerous substances

53 / 100

53) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

B) Immediately evacuate the building

C) Activate the fire alarm

D) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

54 / 100

54) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of first aid kits

B) The location of hazardous materials

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

55 / 100

55) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

B) Training security staff for private companies

C) Regulating the security industry through licensing

D) Offering financial support to security contractors

56 / 100

56) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Increasing entry fees to control access

B) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

C) Hosting private social events for the community

D) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

57 / 100

57) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

B) Increased exposure to potential violence

C) Reduced access to basic health support

D) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

58 / 100

58) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Vehicle immobilizer

B) Personal trainer

C) Customer support agent

D) Maintenance person

59 / 100

59) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

B) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

C) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

D) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

60 / 100

60) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

C) Conducting highly visible patrols

D) Preventing interactions with the public

61 / 100

61) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To improve the reputation of the venue

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To comply with legal requirements

62 / 100

62) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Being under the influence of alcohol

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

63 / 100

63) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Having a discussion with a family member

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

64 / 100

64) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

B) Alert the appropriate emergency services

C) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

D) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

65 / 100

65) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

D) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

66 / 100

66) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Clear and concise communication

B) Offering physical assistance

C) Providing immediate medical attention

D) Removing them from the premises

67 / 100

67) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

B) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

C) Directing security to a distressed individual

D) Taking part in group activities with friends

68 / 100

68) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

B) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

C) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

D) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

69 / 100

69) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

B) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

C) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

D) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

70 / 100

70) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is possible but not likely

B) When it is highly improbable

C) When it is unlikely but still possible

D) When it is almost certain to happen

71 / 100

71) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

72 / 100

72) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Guiding someone to a safe place

B) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

C) Informing someone of their legal rights

D) Depriving someone of their freedom

73 / 100

73) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It promotes communication and collaboration

B) It increases individual accountability

C) It encourages competition among colleagues

D) It enables individuals to work independently

74 / 100

74) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

75 / 100

75) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

B) A package left unattended

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

76 / 100

76) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Training employees in fire safety procedures

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Providing first aid to injured staff

77 / 100

77) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

78 / 100

78) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) Guarantee low prices for security services

C) Promote high standards within the industry

D) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

79 / 100

79) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Contact the transport's customer service team

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

C) Directly confront the individual

D) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

80 / 100

80) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A heart attack

81 / 100

81) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Sending a text message

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Writing a polite email

82 / 100

82) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It leads to more competition among staff

B) It increases individual recognition

C) It means fewer security staff are needed

D) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

83 / 100

83) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

B) State the total number of visitors

C) List the names of staff present

D) Recount only the parts that seem important

84 / 100

84) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Personal preferences for handling situations

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) SIA standards and the company's established values

85 / 100

85) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

B) Common illnesses among employees

C) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

D) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

86 / 100

86) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

B) Something that might cause occasional distractions

C) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

D) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

87 / 100

87) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Calmly walking away

B) Freezing and surrendering

C) Fight or flight

D) Searching for a crowded area

88 / 100

88) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

89 / 100

89) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A manager requesting information

C) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

D) A colleague asking for help with a task

90 / 100

90) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Reviewing old criminal offenses

91 / 100

91) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Have no special powers of arrest

B) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

92 / 100

92) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

D) An individual who appears disoriented

93 / 100

93) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Writing down instructions

B) Speaking calmly

C) Speaking in an aggressive tone

D) Being confrontational

94 / 100

94) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When scheduling breaks for security staff

B) When arranging office furniture

C) When interacting with hostile customers

D) When discussing personal matters outside of work

95 / 100

95) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

B) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

C) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

D) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

96 / 100

96) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

B) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

C) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

D) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

97 / 100

97) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Decrease in social interactions

B) Changes in behavior

C) Consistent injuries

D) Positive self-esteem

98 / 100

98) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To avoid potential liability for future issues

C) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

D) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

99 / 100

99) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It removes the need to contact emergency services

D) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

100 / 100

100) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

B) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

Your score is

The average score is 65%

Module 1C

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

B) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

C) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

D) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

2 / 92

2) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review their statement and the relevant case details

B) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

C) Wait until the last minute to arrive

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

3 / 92

3) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

B) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

C) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

D) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

4 / 92

4) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class A

B) Class F

C) Class B

D) Class D

5 / 92

5) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 300 meters.

B) Approximately 200 meters.

C) Approximately 400 meters.

D) Approximately 100 meters.

6 / 92

6) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) The state brings charges against individuals

B) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

C) Private individuals initiate cases in court

D) Local councils manage all cases

7 / 92

7) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

B) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

C) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

D) Assisting a lost individual

8 / 92

8) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Sprinkler system

B) Fire blanket

C) Water

D) Fire hose

9 / 92

9) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

B) Blocking access to all staircases

C) Ensuring security personnel leave first

D) Locking all entrances and exits

10 / 92

10) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

B) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

C) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

11 / 92

11) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

B) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

C) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

D) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

12 / 92

12) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To help them avoid discussing the incident

C) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

D) To review an incident without taking reflective action

13 / 92

13) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Providing written instructions.

B) Being argumentative.

C) Using an aggressive tone.

D) Speaking in a calm manner.

14 / 92

14) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) What they observed and their names

B) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

C) Any previous self-protection training they had

D) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

15 / 92

15) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual responsibility

B) It fosters communication and cooperation

C) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

D) It allows individuals to work in isolation

16 / 92

16) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

C) High-visibility patrols

D) Preventing interactions with the public

17 / 92

17) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When planning breaks for security staff

B) When managing office furniture layout

C) When dealing with aggressive customers

D) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

18 / 92

18) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A manager requesting information

C) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

D) A colleague seeking help with a task

19 / 92

19) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

B) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

C) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

D) To avoid potential liability for issues

20 / 92

20) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of hazardous materials

21 / 92

21) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A power outage

B) A water leak

C) A fire

D) A gas leak

22 / 92

22) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

B) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

C) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

D) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

23 / 92

23) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It increases risks for both staff and the public

C) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

D) It reduces the need for training and oversight

24 / 92

24) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The release of hazardous substances.

B) The use of firearms.

C) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

D) Theft of sensitive information.

25 / 92

25) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Delivery driver

B) Manned Guarding

C) Private investigator

D) Office receptionist

26 / 92

26) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

27 / 92

27) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

B) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

C) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

D) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

28 / 92

28) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

29 / 92

29) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

30 / 92

30) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

31 / 92

31) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

C) Sound the alarm

D) Stop and search for the fire's source

32 / 92

32) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

B) A child playing outdoors with friends

C) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

D) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

33 / 92

33) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Engaging in group activities with friends

B) Offering aid to people in distress

C) Closely observing and tracking individuals

D) Guiding security towards a distressed person

34 / 92

34) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A software update on a laptop

C) A slip on a wet floor

D) A heart attack

35 / 92

35) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) CO2 Gas

B) Wet chemical

C) Foam

D) Water

36 / 92

36) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Reducing communication between team members

B) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

C) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

D) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

37 / 92

37) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It eliminates the need for other security measures

D) It removes the need to call emergency services

38 / 92

38) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Being under the influence of alcohol

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

39 / 92

39) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

B) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

C) Improving team morale

D) Preparing to use physical restraints

40 / 92

40) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime occurs

B) Call the transport's customer service team

C) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

D) Confront the individual directly

41 / 92

41) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Booking a taxi for the individual

B) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

C) Using local support organizations

D) Requesting assistance from the police

42 / 92

42) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Possible but unlikely

B) Highly improbable

C) Nearly certain

D) Unlikely but conceivable

43 / 92

43) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Try to administer first aid without training

C) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

D) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

44 / 92

44) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Financial bonuses

B) Effective practices

C) Good team-building activities

D) New opportunities for equipment

45 / 92

45) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

B) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

C) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

D) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

46 / 92

46) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

B) A blue square with a cross

C) A red circle with a line through it

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

47 / 92

47) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Control

B) Conclusion

C) Clear

D) Confirm

48 / 92

48) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) SIA standards and the company's values

B) Personal preferences in handling situations

C) Customer wishes and demands

D) Instructions from colleagues

49 / 92

49) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Limited access to basic health support.

B) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

C) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

D) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

50 / 92

50) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) Samaritans

C) Advice Citizens Bureau

D) The local community center

51 / 92

51) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

B) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

C) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

D) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

52 / 92

52) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

53 / 92

53) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

B) It can only be used indoors

C) It cannot record any criminal activities

D) It can only be used outdoors

54 / 92

54) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Documenting visitor logs

C) Recording shift instructions and break times

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

55 / 92

55) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

B) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

C) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

D) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

56 / 92

56) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual who appears disoriented

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

57 / 92

57) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

C) Training security personnel for private firms.

D) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

58 / 92

58) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

B) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

C) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

D) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

59 / 92

59) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To question the suspect about the offense

B) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

C) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

D) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

60 / 92

60) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) The approved contractor scheme

D) A security benefits scheme for employees

61 / 92

61) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

B) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

C) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

D) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

62 / 92

62) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

B) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

C) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

D) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

63 / 92

63) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To avoid any staff interactions

B) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

C) To reduce security visibility to the public

D) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

64 / 92

64) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

C) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

D) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

65 / 92

65) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

B) Notify the victim's family before taking action

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

66 / 92

66) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Compensation and employee benefits

B) Allocation of lunch breaks

C) Participation in team-building activities

D) Access to company resources

67 / 92

67) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To inform the media about the arrest

B) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

C) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

D) To immediately leave the scene

68 / 92

68) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving hot cooking oils

B) A fire involving wood or rubber

C) A fire involving petrol or paint

D) A fire involving butane gas

69 / 92

69) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

B) List the names of all staff present

C) Recount only the seemingly important parts

D) State the total number of visitors

70 / 92

70) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of common colds among employees

B) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

C) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

D) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

71 / 92

71) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for awareness

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Accessible only by authorized personnel

D) Deleted after one month

72 / 92

72) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Contacting emergency services.

B) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

C) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

D) Investigating the cause before taking action.

73 / 92

73) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Smiling or frowning

C) Writing a polite email

D) Using hand signals to direct someone

74 / 92

74) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

75 / 92

75) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Have no special powers of arrest

D) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

76 / 92

76) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

B) Organizing private gatherings within the community

C) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

D) Increasing entry fees for access control

77 / 92

77) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

B) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

78 / 92

78) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

B) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

C) Denying that there is any issue

D) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

79 / 92

79) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside of work

B) Potential promotions within the company

C) Dress code policies

D) Work-related personal projects

80 / 92

80) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

C) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

D) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

81 / 92

81) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

B) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

C) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

82 / 92

82) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

B) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

C) Asking security staff for directions

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

83 / 92

83) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

B) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

C) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

D) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

84 / 92

84) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Proceed to question the individual

B) Detain the individual

C) Escort the individual off the premises

D) Immediately search the individual

85 / 92

85) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform a manager and record the incident.

B) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

C) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

D) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

86 / 92

86) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

B) Preserved and handed over to the police

C) Photographed and then discarded

D) Disposed of and logged

87 / 92

87) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

B) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

C) Water, heat, and oxygen

D) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

88 / 92

88) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Assault

B) Murder

C) Burglary

D) Breach of contract

89 / 92

89) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

90 / 92

90) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It ensures no one will challenge actions

B) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

C) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

D) It prevents involvement from local authorities

91 / 92

91) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To avoid attending required safety training.

B) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

C) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

D) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

92 / 92

92) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Temporary suspension from their job

C) A verbal warning from their employer

D) Requirement to attend additional training

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1D

/72

SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI

Principles of Working in the Private Security Industry -MCQ

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 72

1) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A colleague asking for help with a task

C) A manager requesting information

D) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

2 / 72

2) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Having a clear sense of direction

3 / 72

3) Which of the following is a key component of an emergency plan?

A) An evacuation procedure, including assembly points

B) A schedule for the next week's security patrols

C) A map of the local area's restaurants and shops

D) A detailed list of all staff personal contact numbers

4 / 72

4) Which of the following is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It encourages competition amongst colleagues

B) It promotes communication and collaboration

C) It enables individuals to work independently

D) It increases individual accountability

5 / 72

5) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire extinguishers

B) The location of hazardous materials

C) The location of first aid kits

D) The location of fire wardens

6 / 72

6) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) reviewed by only staff member

B) shared on social media to raise awareness

C) accessed only by authorised personnel

D) deleted after one month

7 / 72

7) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can effectively improve security for security operatives?

A) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

B) Increasing the use of entry fees for access control

C) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

D) Organising private gatherings within the community

8 / 72

8) When dealing with an upset customer, which of the following actions helps resolve the situation?

A) Put yourself in the customers position and accept responsibility

B) Deny that there is any issue at all

C) Tell the customer to come back later when they are less upset

D) Avoid directly acknowledging their concerns

9 / 72

9) Upon discovering a fire, what is the first action that must be taken?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Wait for the fire to burn out

C) Start a search for the source of the fire

D) Evacuate the building immediately

10 / 72

10) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Dress code policies

D) Employee social gatherings outside work

11 / 72

11) When interacting with a police officer, a security operative must always:

A) demand the police officer show their identification immediately

B) offer personal opinions on the legal matter

C) refuse to hand over any evidence

D) allow the police officer to take control of the situation

12 / 72

12) Which of the following is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It will remove the need to call emergency services

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It removes the need for any other security measures

13 / 72

13) Which of the following is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) Reducing the need for customer service in security roles

B) Allowing security companies to operate without regulation

C) Limiting the number of security contractors in the market

D) Raising performance standards within the private security industry

14 / 72

14) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Start a search for the source of the fire

D) Check the building for the fire's location

15 / 72

15) Which of the following is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor logs

B) Documenting found items

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Recording shift instructions and length of break times

16 / 72

16) Which classification of fire involves materials such as paper, wood and textiles?

A) Class A

B) Class D

C) Class F

D) Class B

17 / 72

17) What does the term arrest mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To take away someone's liberty

C) To escort someone to safety

D) To question someone about a crime

18 / 72

18) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Writing down instructions

B) Speaking calmly

C) Being confrontational

D) Speaking in a aggressive tone

19 / 72

19) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

C) To follow legal requirements and document an incident

D) To avoid potential liability for any future issues

20 / 72

20) Which of the following describes the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

B) To submit suggestions regarding customer service

C) To report lost goods to Law Enforcement

D) To submit criticism against security personnel

21 / 72

21) Which of the following is a key element in deterring anti-social behaviour?

A) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

B) High-profile patrols

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) Neglecting minor incidents

22 / 72

22) An attack is described as having a low threat level when it is:

A) highly unlikely

B) highly likely in the near future

C) almost certain

D) unlikely but possible

23 / 72

23) Which of the following is a basic principle of evacuation?

A) Locking all entrances and exits

B) Making sure security personnel leave first

C) Making sure everyone stays calm and follows procedure

D) Blocking access to all staircases

24 / 72

24) Which of the following is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Freeze and surrender

B) Fight or flight

C) Seek out a crowded place

D) Walk calmly away

25 / 72

25) Which of the following is an indicator of predatory behaviour?

A) Taking part in group activities with friends

B) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

C) Directing a security to a distressed individual

D) Clearly observing and monitoring individuals

26 / 72

26) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) disposed of and noted in a written logbook

B) photographed and then discarded

C) kept confidential and withheld from the police

D) preserved and handed to the police

27 / 72

27) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Escalate immediately to the highest authority

B) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

C) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

D) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

28 / 72

28) Which of the following must be done when a security operative is preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Wait until the last minute to arrive

B) Review their statement and the significant case details

C) Look at as little information as possible and make no preparations

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

29 / 72

29) Evaluating security incidents is key to recognising:

A) financial bonuses

B) good practices

C) new opportunities for equipment

D) good team building activities

30 / 72

30) Which of the following is not an example of duty of care?

A) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

B) Neglecting an individual as they do not appear vulnerable

C) Raising concerns regarding an individual's safety

D) Assisting an individual who seems lost

31 / 72

31) Which of the following is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorised activities

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

32 / 72

32) What do the terms run, hide and tell signify to a security operative in the event of a terror threat?

A) Run to safety, hide if necessary and tell the authorities about the situation

B) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment and tell the media

C) Run home, hide from the threat and tell others on social media

D) Run far from the threat, hide away and tell the authorities about the situation

33 / 72

33) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Social media platforms

B) Colleagues and management

C) Online gaming forums

D) Entertainment websites and apps

34 / 72

34) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A heart attack

B) An epileptic seizure

C) A software update on a laptop

D) A slip on a wet floor

35 / 72

35) To maintain a safe environment, security operatives should inspect their equipment (e.g., radios, torches) to ensure they are:

A) easily concealable from the public

B) fully functional and correctly maintained

C) the latest model on the market

D) used only by one person during a shift

36 / 72

36) What should a security operative do if they see an individual acting suspiciously and taking photographs of a restricted area?

A) Report the activity to the control room or management

B) Immediately challenge them to prove their identity

C) Confront the individual immediately and demand they delete the pictures

D) Ignore the behaviour unless they see a crime being committed

37 / 72

37) A main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) Remove any criminal elements from the industry

C) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) Increase the number of security personnel in the industry

38 / 72

38) Security operatives must understand the scope of the CCTVs cover to:

A) make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) ensure CCTV is used as the sole security measure

C) provide unrestricted access to all employees

D) be aware of blind spots that CCTV may not see

39 / 72

39) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of common colds among employees

B) Cases of accidental slips that result in minor bruises

C) A dangerous occurrence even if nobody was injured

D) A dangerous occurrence only if somebody was injured

40 / 72

40) Which of the following is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Reduced number of security staff needed

B) Increased competition among colleagues

C) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

D) Increased individual recognition

41 / 72

41) Which of the following must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking any action

B) Separate the victim from the attacker

C) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

D) Allow the victim and the attacker to resolve the issue

42 / 72

42) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near the electrical equipment

C) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place away from ignition sources

D) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

43 / 72

43) In which of the following situations must effective communication be used?

A) When managing the layout of furniture in the office

B) When dealing with aggressive customers

C) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

D) When planning breaks for security staff

44 / 72

44) Which or the following is a significant consequence that a security operative may face if they make a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Verbal warning from their employer

D) Temporary suspension from their job

45 / 72

45) The alarm sounds and smoke is seen coming from a nearby room, which of the following emergencies is likely occurring?

A) Power failure

B) Gas leak

C) Water leak

D) Fire

46 / 72

46) Which of the following is an example of an internal customer for a security company working at a venue?

A) A window cleaner contracted by the venue

B) An employee of the venue

C) A member of the public attending an event

D) A delivery driver making a drop-off

47 / 72

47) What is the second step to take when making a citizen's arrest?

A) Immediately perform a search

B) Proceed to question the individual

C) Contact the police

D) Detain the individual

48 / 72

48) How does accurate record-keeping help in a legal situation?

A) It ensures a favourable outcome in court

B) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

49 / 72

49) Which of the following describes necessary force?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force that is used when other options have been exhausted

C) Force that is allowed if it results in a positive outcome

D) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgement

50 / 72

50) Which of the following is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

B) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

C) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

D) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

51 / 72

51) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It may prevent certain individuals from accessing footage

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It is accessible to the general public at any time

D) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

52 / 72

52) Which of the following must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Instructions from colleagues

B) Personal preferences in handling situations

C) Customer wishes and demands

D) SIA standards and the company's values

53 / 72

53) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

54 / 72

54) The main purpose of the anti-terror hotline is to:

A) report threats needing urgent police action

B) provide contact details to the correct medical services

C) provide details on terrorism prevention training

D) report non-urgent suspicious activity

55 / 72

55) Which of the following is an appropriate response when witnessing suspicious behaviour on public transport?

A) Confront the individual directly

B) Only report it if a crime takes place

C) Call the transport's customer service team

D) Use the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

56 / 72

56) When making arrests, security operatives:

A) have the same powers of arrest as police officers

B) have no special powers of arrest

C) can arrest anyone suspected of any offence

D) can detain individuals until they confess

57 / 72

57) Which of the following is the correct way to explain how an incident unravelled in a report?

A) State the total number of visitors

B) List the names of staff present

C) Describe the different stages leading up to it

D) Recount only the parts that seem important

58 / 72

58) Which of the following is a main feature of criminal law?

A) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

B) Victims of the crime always brings the case to court

C) The state brings the cases against individuals

D) Local councils handle all the cases

59 / 72

59) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To question the suspect about the offence

B) To prevent the suspect from causing injury to themselves

C) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

D) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

60 / 72

60) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well presented

B) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Displaying a lack of confidence and insecurity

D) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

61 / 72

61) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Observing people and places to gather information

B) Monitoring a public event as a licenced CCTV operator

C) Taking a number of different pictures of a landmark

D) Speaking with security staff members to ask for directions

62 / 72

62) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To look back on an incident but take no reflective action

B) To assess any actions and to reflect on an incident

C) To aid them in avoiding discussions on the incident

D) To overlook the incident completely and move on

63 / 72

63) Which of the following roles requires an up to date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Manned Guarding

B) Office receptionist

C) Private Investigator

D) Delivery driver

64 / 72

64) What elements must be present for a fire to exist?

A) Oxygen, fuel and heat

B) Water, heat and oxygen

C) Heat, carbon dioxide and water

D) Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide

65 / 72

65) What firefighting equipment must be used for small kitchen fires, like a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire hose

B) Sprinkler system

C) Water

D) Fire blanket

66 / 72

66) What is the primary reason for a security operative to wear high-visibility clothing while on patrol?

A) To reflect the uniform of local police services

B) To make their presence known and act as a deterrent

C) To clearly identify them as an emergency service worker

D) To keep warm during cold weather

67 / 72

67) Which of the following behaviours suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual consistently entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears unsure of their surroundings

68 / 72

68) Which of the following is not one of the 4 Cs?

A) Control

B) Confirm

C) Conclusion

D) Clear

69 / 72

69) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the current Health and Safety at Work etc Act?

A) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

B) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

C) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only when there is an accident

70 / 72

70) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can help convey emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Writing a polite email to someone

D) Smiling or frowning

71 / 72

71) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By allowing the security operative to change their duties as they see fit

D) By ensuring the security operative meets the client's requirements

72 / 72

72) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial support to security contractors

B) Regulating the security industry through licensing

C) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

D) Training security staff for private companies

Your score is

The average score is 48%

Module 2

/60

SO Module 2

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 2" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 60

1) When managing queues, it is important to assess what?

A) Customer age

B) Customer religion

C) Customer height

D) Customer behaviour

2 / 60

2) You can increase your personal safety at work by:

A) drinking plenty of coffee

B) taking longer breaks drinking plenty of coffee staying alert

C) noting pocketbook entries

D) staying alert

3 / 60

3) What are the 2 telephone numbers you can use to call the emergency services on?

A) 999 and 112

B) 999 and 211

C) 999 and 100

D) 100 and 112

4 / 60

4) What should a security officer do immediately on activation of a fire alarm?

A) Silence the alarm while they investigate

B) Implement full evacuation of the site

C) Check the control panel for the location

D) Ignore it until confirmed as genuine

5 / 60

5) Following a serious incident and to preserve evidence, access to a crime scene should be what?

A) Unrestricted

B) Restricted

C) Open to the public

D) Photographed

6 / 60

6) If a visitor refuses to be searched at the access point to a site the security officer should:

A) arrest the visitor for refusing to be searched

B) refuse entry and report the matter to the police

C) allow entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

D) refuse entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

7 / 60

7) When operating an external automated security barrier, a security officer should ensure that:

A) only emergency vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

B) only one vehicle enters or exits the site when the barrier is raised.

C) only staff vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

D) only cars enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

8 / 60

8) What pro-word means 'my message ends, please reply?

A) Over

B) Out

C) Repeat

D) Wait

9 / 60

9) The main purpose of a final patrol is to:

A) identify serious problems throughout the shift

B) prevent criminals from predicting when security is present

C) ensure no problems exist for the next officer on duty

D) comply with the supervisor's instructions

10 / 60

10) Which of the following best describes the main responsibility of a security officer?

A) Guarding premises against unauthorised access

B) Ensuring the site is monitored 24 hours a day

C) Attracting more clients for the organisation

D) Preventing waste of the organisation's materials

11 / 60

11) What is the main risk with a needle-stick injury?

A) Bleeding

B) Sickness

C) Infectious diseases

D) Pain

12 / 60

12) How would you spell the word CAT using the phonetic alphabet?

A) Cat, Apple, Tunisia

B) Charlie, Apple, Tango

C) Charlie, Alpha, Toga

D) Charlie, Alpha, Tango

13 / 60

13) Body-worn cameras (BWC) are not used to:

A) gather evidence of crimes

B) identify offenders

C) record incidents for social media

D) protects against false allegations

14 / 60

14) Safety is the responsibility of:

A) everyone

B) employees only

C) employers only

D) health and safety personnel

15 / 60

15) Positional asphyxia is most likely to be caused by:

A) restraint on the ground

B) contact with non-weapon items

C) strikes and kicks

D) an arm hold

16 / 60

16) Security officers should only use physical interventions if they:

A) are martial arts experts

B) have authority from the police

C) are trained

D) do not have backup

17 / 60

17) On finding some damage on the site during a patrol, who should you report it to initially?

A) The site owner

B) The accounts department

C) The health and safety team

D) The control room

18 / 60

18) Reflecting on personal safety experiences will most likely:

A) cause a change in procedures

B) keep supervisors happy

C) make you safer

D) lead to the recruitment of more staff

19 / 60

19) A security officer would secure any unauthorised items found during a search by following:

A) a supervisor's instructions

B) the assignment instructions

C) the advice of colleagues

D) police guidelines

20 / 60

20) Having a good method of entry control will ensure that:

A) visitors' identification is properly checked before entry

B) staff are thoroughly searched when entering

C) managers can check who is working on the site

D) health and safety risks are recorded

21 / 60

21) Which of the following requests for access should make a security officer suspicious?

A) An appointment that has been notified to security

B) No appointment confirmed but with a named contact

C) No appointment confirmed and no known contact

D) An appointment confirmed with a named contact

22 / 60

22) Which of the following is not a statutory agency employee?

A) A fire officer

B) A national health service employee

C) A police officer

D) A health and safety inspector

23 / 60

23) If a member of staff refuses to be searched on exit, a security officer should:

A) tell them that it is a breach of their contract and record all details

B) allow them to exit and take no further action

C) take them to a separate room and search them anyway

D) remove their personal property and allow them to leave

24 / 60

24) Retail security most likely involves the protection of:

A) government buildings

B) businesses

C) licensed premises

D) management

25 / 60

25) Check calls contribute to a security officer's:

A) time-keeping

B) efficiency

C) safety

D) conduct

26 / 60

26) Which types of people are most likely to put your personal safety at greater risk?

A) Elderly people

B) Lone individuals

C) Young people

D) Intoxicated people

27 / 60

27) Metal detectors in search areas are mainly used to prevent the entry of

A) drugs

B) weapons

C) alcohol

D) mobile phones

28 / 60

28) During incidents, dynamic risk assessments help to:

A) prevent crimes

B) keep everyone safe

C) only keep yourself safe

D) prevent prosecution

29 / 60

29) A fire alarm system can assist a security officer by:

A) alerting officers to intruders

B) showing evacuation routes

C) informing the ambulance service

D) alerting officers to incidents

30 / 60

30) Which of the following statements describes best practice when carrying out searches?

A) Authorisation by a supervisor must be granted before any search begins

B) Permission by the subject must always be given before a search

C) Anyone can be searched on entry to a site

D) Force can be used if a search is refused

31 / 60

31) Using personal protective equipment (PPE) correctly will:

A) protect you from harm

B) make your job easier

C) make you comfortable

D) save you time

32 / 60

32) Snap patrols carried out during a shift are made as the result of a specific what?

A) Incident

B) Complaint

C) Rumour

D) Request

33 / 60

33) Which of the following are not items of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A) Body-worn cameras

B) Personal alarms

C) Pocketbooks

D) Metal detectors

34 / 60

34) The most important reason for crime scenes to be preserved is to:

A) keep the site clean

B) make arrests

C) help identify offenders

D) help the ambulance service

35 / 60

35) Properly maintained protection systems are less likely to:

A) require software updates

B) malfunction

C) function correctly

D) require servicing

36 / 60

36) From the following, what skill can help you during a conflict situation?

A) Positive talking

B) Active listening

C) Authoritative speech

D) Negative communication

37 / 60

37) In addition to physical harm, physical interventions are most likely to cause:

A) work-related stress

B) vehicle accidents

C) marriage problems

D) job loss

38 / 60

38) A feature of security systems is that they:

A) detect external interference

B) identify the type of vehicles entering a site

C) measure the number of pedestrians entering a site

D) record customer preferences in a retail shop

39 / 60

39) In all conflict situations, security officers need to carry out ongoing:

A) injury surveys

B) accident report book

C) risk surveys

D) risk assessments aggravation assessments

40 / 60

40) Which of the following is an example of a general search?

A) Searches carried out only at night

B) Only males are searched

C) Everyone is searched

D) Searches carried out during daylight hours only

41 / 60

41) Following an arrest by a security officer, the next action should be to call the:

A) police

B) security company

C) site owner

D) local press

42 / 60

42) Security officer patrols carried out at the start of the shift are called:

A) general patrols

B) interim patrols

C) primary patrols

D) initial patrols

43 / 60

43) An example of a physical protection system to help prevent article theft is an electronic article surveillance (EAS) device. These are more commonly known as:

A) triggers

B) buzzers

C) bugs

D) tags

44 / 60

44) Ignoring your personal safety during a conflict situation will most likely:

A) increase the risk of escalation

B) increase the need for extra staff

C) reduce the need for reports

D) decrease the risk of escalation

45 / 60

45) Search records help prove that searches have been carried out:

A) lawfully

B) inappropriately

C) by the police

D) with a search warrant

46 / 60

46) If a customer or member of the public sustains a minor injury during a vehicle search, your first action should be to contact:

A) the site owner

B) a first-aider

C) your line manager

D) the police

47 / 60

47) While searching the interior of a vehicle, you will not be required to search:

A) in door pockets

B) under the carpets

C) the exhaust pipe

D) under the seats

48 / 60

48) Which of the following would be considered a type of security technology?

A) Speed ramps on the approach road

B) Steel grills on windows

C) A swipe card door access key

D) security guard at barrier control

49 / 60

49) It is important to check the identification documents of all visitors to:

A) check the age of everyone entering

B) allow access for statutory agencies

C) prevent unauthorised access

D) comply with council regulations

50 / 60

50) A customer approaches the front door and has enlarged pupils and rapid jaw movement; this is a potential indicator that they are under the influence of:

A) Ecstasy

B) LSD

C) Marijuana

D) Alcohol

51 / 60

51) Which of the following is not an example of illegal drugs litter?

A) Empty beer cans

B) Discarded needles

C) Burnt spoons

D) Scorched tinfoil

52 / 60

52) Which of the following incidents would require a call to the emergency services?

A) A check-call

B) A leaking tap

C) A trip or fall

D) A fire

53 / 60

53) Pre-entry checks are carried out on a site before it opens to:

A) ensure the site is clean

B) ensure the site is safe

C) comply with building regulations

D) comply with council policy

54 / 60

54) The most effective way to safely dispose of a needle is to put it in:

A) a sharps box

B) the waste bin

C) newspaper, wrapped up

D) a bottle

55 / 60

55) Keeping your knowledge and skills up to date will most likely:

A) decrease your efficiency

B) increase the risk to your personal safety

C) ensure you comply with your contract

D) reduce risks to your personal safety

56 / 60

56) While completing patrols, you should stay in contact with:

A) the police

B) the health and safety team

C) the site owner

D) the control room

57 / 60

57) While on duty, a security officer can get assistance, guidance and emergency support from:

A) the security control room

B) the security manager's office during office hours

C) human resources

D) other staff from the organisation

58 / 60

58) Information on who security officers should allow onto a site can be found in the:

A) health and safety policy

B) entrance book

C) admissions policy

D) fire policy

59 / 60

59) On activation of a fire alarm, what should a security officer working on access control do?

A) Do nothing until the alarm is confirmed as genuine

B) Go and look for the area on fire

C) Leave their post and go to the assembly point

D) Open any entry/exit barriers and monitor them

60 / 60

60) The use of CCTV in search areas will most likely prevent.

A) needle-stick injuries

B) malicious allegations

C) drugs contamination

D) criminal damage

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 3

/50

SO Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Facing the other person directly

B) Dodging eye contact

C) only paying partial attention to the other person

D) gesturing with open palms

2 / 50

2) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Force to stop an argument

B) Take one to another room to separate them

C) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

D) Threaten to call the police

3 / 50

3) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Awareness

B) Frustration

C) Assertiveness

D) Empathy

4 / 50

4) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The manager

B) The Local Council

C) The lead security operative

D) The Victim Support Scheme

5 / 50

5) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Child Line

B) Crime Stoppers

C) Victim Support

D) Samaritans

6 / 50

6) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Assertive

B) Patronised

C) Motivated

D) Capable

7 / 50

7) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

B) It minimizes the chances of a risk

C) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

D) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

8 / 50

8) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) May get disciplined

B) Will avoid being disciplined

C) Will continue to perform well

D) Can ignore injury

9 / 50

9) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search

B) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

C) 'I need that bag to make search it.

D) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

10 / 50

10) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Patience

B) Frustration

C) Assertiveness

D) Violence

11 / 50

11) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

B) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

C) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

D) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

12 / 50

12) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

B) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

C) Having strong personal values

D) Being unsure of what action is take

13 / 50

13) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

B) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

14 / 50

14) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Loses face

B) Treated like a valued guest

C) Made to feel welcome

D) Shocked

15 / 50

15) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

B) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

C) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

D) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

16 / 50

16) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) The customer departing

B) An argument

C) Have your driver's license suspended

D) Loss of your employment

17 / 50

17) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Exert all available force

B) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

C) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

D) Kick the customer out without warning

18 / 50

18) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Stand further away from the employee

B) Bully at them and tell jokes

C) Begin to use abusive personal language

D) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

19 / 50

19) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Optimistic

C) Angry

D) Empowered

20 / 50

20) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) The conflict will remain unresolved

B) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

C) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

D) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

21 / 50

21) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being kept waiting

B) Not providing relevant information

C) Being fearful of the consequences

D) Being disregarded

22 / 50

22) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) The customer might bring his friends

B) You might be fired from your workplace

C) For the safety of yourself and others

D) You cannot guarantee victory

23 / 50

23) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Social barrier

B) Psychological barrier

C) Political barrier

D) Physical barrier

24 / 50

24) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Develop a rapport with the customer

B) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

C) Note down the instructions

D) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

25 / 50

25) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Speaking to the customer seriously

B) Advising to the customer

C) Not listening to the customer

D) Being assertive towards the customer

26 / 50

26) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

B) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

C) It empowers the customer to take charge

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

27 / 50

27) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) A spin-off

B) Empathic

C) A win-win

D) Compromised

28 / 50

28) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

D) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

29 / 50

29) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Different cultures

B) Different eye colour

C) Diverse hair colour

D) Various clothes

30 / 50

30) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their hearing tunes into the threat

B) Their heartbeat decelerates

C) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

D) Their thought processes become more logical

31 / 50

31) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Stimulus

B) Humiliation

C) Motivation

D) Recognition

32 / 50

32) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) May get disciplined

B) Will still do a nice job

C) might avoid injury

D) Will ignore being disciplined

33 / 50

33) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) The outcome is successful

B) Any direction given are followed

C) They complain to management

D) Your opinion is heard

34 / 50

34) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak loudly

B) Speak calmly

C) Speak aggressively

D) Speak quickly

35 / 50

35) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Suitable

B) Minimal

C) Mandatory

D) Reasonable

36 / 50

36) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Irrational and emotional

B) Rational and social

C) Rational and emotional

D) Rational and psychological

37 / 50

37) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Mandatory

B) Approachable

C) Reasonable

D) Less

38 / 50

38) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

B) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

C) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

D) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

39 / 50

39) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

B) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

C) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

D) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

40 / 50

40) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Insulted

B) Appreciated

C) Нарру

D) Comfortable

41 / 50

41) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Displaying empathy to show you understand to other person

B) Being threatening

C) Explaining the potential outcomes behaviour continuing

D) Being assertive

42 / 50

42) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Concise communication

B) Effective communication

C) Poor communication

D) Persuasive communication

43 / 50

43) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

B) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

C) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

D) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

44 / 50

44) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Ignoring the legal consequences

B) Fighting back

C) Fear of retaliation

D) Being rude

45 / 50

45) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

B) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

C) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

D) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

46 / 50

46) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Showing empathy towards the customer

B) By criticising the actions of the customer

C) Being bossy towards the customer

D) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

47 / 50

47) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to force their way past the employee

B) Hold until the employee moves

C) Tell the manager

D) Try to talk their way out of the situation

48 / 50

48) Empathy means being able to:

A) Understand another person’s point of view

B) Encourage another person’s perception

C) Ignore someone else's opinion

D) Share someone else's opinion

49 / 50

49) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

B) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

C) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

D) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

50 / 50

50) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To get a promotion

B) Make a positive impression on your manager

C) To pick up trends

D) To get increase in salary

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

Quick Links

Our Construction Services

Our Security Services

Forms & Submissions

SIA Approved Security Training Courses

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

Quick Links

Our Construction Services

Our Security Services

Forms & Submissions

SIA Approved Security Training Courses

Login to your account

Register Account

Register for new job alert