Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Providing legal representation to businesses

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

D) Managing public relations for private companies

2 / 99

2) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

B) Guarantee low prices for security services

C) Promote high standards within the industry

D) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

3 / 99

3) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Adding more oxygen

B) Adding more heat

C) Removing the carbon dioxide

D) Removing the fuel

4 / 99

4) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

B) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

C) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

D) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

5 / 99

5) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

B) To gather information about the offense

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

6 / 99

6) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Reading a text message aloud

B) Making a phone call

C) Speaking clearly to someone

D) Using hand gestures

7 / 99

7) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

B) To show authority and control over the situation

C) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

D) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

8 / 99

8) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

B) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

C) A package left unattended

D) A colleague having an asthma attack

9 / 99

9) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Training security staff for private companies

B) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

C) Offering financial support to security contractors

D) Regulating the security industry through licensing

10 / 99

10) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A notice posted on a door

B) A security operative speaking to a customer

C) A facial expression showing confusion

D) Listening to a colleague's opinion

11 / 99

11) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

C) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

D) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

12 / 99

12) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

13 / 99

13) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When discussing personal matters outside of work

B) When arranging office furniture

C) When scheduling breaks for security staff

D) When interacting with hostile customers

14 / 99

14) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

B) Photograph it and then throw it away

C) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

D) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

15 / 99

15) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Might be conducting suspicious activities

B) Are an employee running late for a meeting

C) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

D) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

16 / 99

16) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

B) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

D) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

17 / 99

17) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking in an aggressive tone

B) Being confrontational

C) Speaking calmly

D) Writing down instructions

18 / 99

18) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

D) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

19 / 99

19) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Offering physical assistance

B) Providing immediate medical attention

C) Removing them from the premises

D) Clear and concise communication

20 / 99

20) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Integrity

B) Dishonesty

C) Indifference

D) Aggression

21 / 99

21) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Engaging the person with professional customer service

B) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

C) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

D) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

22 / 99

22) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It increases individual recognition

B) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

C) It leads to more competition among staff

D) It means fewer security staff are needed

23 / 99

23) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

D) Have no special powers of arrest

24 / 99

24) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

B) Recount only the parts that seem important

C) List the names of staff present

D) State the total number of visitors

25 / 99

25) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

B) To avoid potential liability for future issues

C) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

D) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

26 / 99

26) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) An individual stealing sensitive information

B) Release of dangerous substances

C) Use of firearms

D) Hacking into a company's computer systems

27 / 99

27) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To make personal notes about customers

B) To improve the reputation of the venue

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To comply with legal requirements

28 / 99

28) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

B) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

C) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

D) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

29 / 99

29) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Searching for a crowded area

B) Fight or flight

C) Calmly walking away

D) Freezing and surrendering

30 / 99

30) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Reducing opportunities for crimes

B) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

C) Limiting communication between security teams

D) Promoting competition among local businesses

31 / 99

31) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

B) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

C) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

32 / 99

32) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Having a discussion with a family member

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

33 / 99

33) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Increased motivation to perform better

B) Optimized focus on work projects

C) Enhanced team dynamics

D) Developing negative coping mechanisms

34 / 99

34) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

B) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

C) Lift the load using the back muscles

D) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

35 / 99

35) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Conducting highly visible patrols

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) Ignoring minor incidents

D) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

36 / 99

36) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Recording shift instructions and break durations

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

37 / 99

37) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Reviewing old criminal offenses

B) Planning out the route to the venue

C) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

38 / 99

38) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

39 / 99

39) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing is optional for all security companies

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

40 / 99

40) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

B) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

C) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

D) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

41 / 99

41) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Entertainment websites and apps

B) Colleagues and management

C) Online gaming communities

D) Social media platforms

42 / 99

42) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Vehicle immobilizer

B) Personal trainer

C) Maintenance person

D) Customer support agent

43 / 99

43) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

D) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

44 / 99

44) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual who appears disoriented

B) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

C) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

D) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

45 / 99

45) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Accessed only by authorized personnel

B) Deleted after one month

C) Shared on social media for public awareness

D) Reviewed by any staff member

46 / 99

46) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

B) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

C) Something that might cause occasional distractions

D) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

47 / 99

47) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

B) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

C) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) To provide contact details for medical services

48 / 99

48) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

B) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

C) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

49 / 99

49) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Being confident and energetic

D) Being under the influence of alcohol

50 / 99

50) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

B) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

C) To submit complaints against security personnel

D) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

51 / 99

51) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

B) Immediately evacuate the building

C) Activate the fire alarm

D) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

52 / 99

52) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

C) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

53 / 99

53) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

B) Report the injury to their employer

C) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

D) Only document it if they require medical treatment

54 / 99

54) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

B) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

C) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

55 / 99

55) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Training employees in fire safety procedures

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Providing first aid to injured staff

56 / 99

56) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

B) Notify the victim's family before taking action

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

D) Separate the victim from the attacker

57 / 99

57) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

B) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

C) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

58 / 99

58) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is unlikely but still possible

B) When it is possible but not likely

C) When it is almost certain to happen

D) When it is highly improbable

59 / 99

59) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Work-related personal projects

B) Potential promotions within the company

C) Dress code policies

D) Employee social gatherings outside work

60 / 99

60) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Check the building for any missing people

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

D) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

61 / 99

61) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

62 / 99

62) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Deny there's any problem

B) Ignore their complaints directly

C) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

D) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

63 / 99

63) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

B) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

C) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

D) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

64 / 99

64) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

B) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

C) Hosting private social events for the community

D) Increasing entry fees to control access

65 / 99

65) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Contact the transport's customer service team

B) Directly confront the individual

C) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

66 / 99

66) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

B) To improve employee productivity and performance

C) To estimate costs for safety equipment

D) To limit employee movement around the premises

67 / 99

67) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) Parking offenses

B) Littering

C) An assault

D) A noise complaint

68 / 99

68) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

B) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

C) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

D) May result in increased stress for the security operative

69 / 99

69) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is extremely unlikely

C) An attack is possible but unlikely

D) An attack is likely

70 / 99

70) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

B) It removes the need to contact emergency services

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

71 / 99

71) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A heart attack

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A software update on a laptop

D) An epileptic seizure

72 / 99

72) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

D) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

73 / 99

73) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

B) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

C) Local councils handle all the cases

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

74 / 99

74) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It enables individuals to work independently

B) It encourages competition among colleagues

C) It increases individual accountability

D) It promotes communication and collaboration

75 / 99

75) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Verbal warning from their employer

D) Temporary suspension from their job

76 / 99

76) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

77 / 99

77) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

B) A colleague asking for help with a task

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A manager requesting information

78 / 99

78) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

B) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

C) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

D) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

79 / 99

79) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Changes in behavior

B) Consistent injuries

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Positive self-esteem

80 / 99

80) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Call their superior before taking any actions

D) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

81 / 99

81) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

B) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

C) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

D) Common illnesses among employees

82 / 99

82) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Sending a text message

C) Writing a polite email

D) Smiling or frowning

83 / 99

83) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Increased exposure to potential violence

B) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

C) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

D) Reduced access to basic health support

84 / 99

84) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Alert the appropriate emergency services

B) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

C) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

D) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

85 / 99

85) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of hazardous materials

86 / 99

86) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

B) To completely overlook the incident and move on

C) To review an incident but take no reflective action

D) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

87 / 99

87) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only general instructions without specific details

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

C) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

D) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

88 / 99

88) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

89 / 99

89) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Requesting assistance with directions

D) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

90 / 99

90) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Personal preferences for handling situations

B) SIA standards and the company's established values

C) Customer wishes and demands

D) Instructions from colleagues

91 / 99

91) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

B) To avoid supporting each individual customer

C) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

D) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

92 / 99

92) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

93 / 99

93) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

B) Directing security to a distressed individual

C) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

D) Taking part in group activities with friends

94 / 99

94) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

95 / 99

95) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

96 / 99

96) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

C) To make the communication sound more complex

D) To add a formal tone to the conversation

97 / 99

97) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Guiding someone to a safe place

B) Informing someone of their legal rights

C) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

D) Depriving someone of their freedom

98 / 99

98) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

B) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

99 / 99

99) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A visitor log

B) An accident report

C) A search register

D) A duty sheet

Your score is

The average score is 61%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Documenting visitor logs

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Recording shift instructions and break times

2 / 92

2) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform a manager and record the incident.

B) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

C) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

D) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

3 / 92

3) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

B) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

4 / 92

4) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of common colds among employees

B) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

C) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

D) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

5 / 92

5) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It eliminates the need for other security measures

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It removes the need to call emergency services

6 / 92

6) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To help them avoid discussing the incident

B) To review an incident without taking reflective action

C) To completely disregard the incident and move on

D) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

7 / 92

7) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

B) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

C) It ensures no one will challenge actions

D) It prevents involvement from local authorities

8 / 92

8) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

C) It reduces the need for training and oversight

D) It increases risks for both staff and the public

9 / 92

9) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

B) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

C) What they observed and their names

D) Any previous self-protection training they had

10 / 92

10) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Dress code policies

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Employee social gatherings outside of work

11 / 92

11) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

B) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

C) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

D) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

12 / 92

12) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To avoid attending required safety training.

B) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

C) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

D) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

13 / 92

13) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) An individual who appears disoriented

14 / 92

14) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 400 meters.

B) Approximately 300 meters.

C) Approximately 100 meters.

D) Approximately 200 meters.

15 / 92

15) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Immediately search the individual

B) Detain the individual

C) Proceed to question the individual

D) Escort the individual off the premises

16 / 92

16) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A water leak

B) A fire

C) A power outage

D) A gas leak

17 / 92

17) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Contacting emergency services.

B) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

C) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

D) Investigating the cause before taking action.

18 / 92

18) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Limited access to basic health support.

B) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

C) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

D) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

19 / 92

19) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Participation in team-building activities

B) Compensation and employee benefits

C) Access to company resources

D) Allocation of lunch breaks

20 / 92

20) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

21 / 92

21) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Citizens Advice Bureau

B) The local community center

C) Trade unions

D) Samaritans

22 / 92

22) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

B) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

C) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

D) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

23 / 92

23) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class A

B) Class F

C) Class D

D) Class B

24 / 92

24) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

B) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

C) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

D) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

25 / 92

25) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The use of firearms.

B) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

C) The release of hazardous substances.

D) Theft of sensitive information.

26 / 92

26) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A blue square with a cross

B) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

C) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

D) A red circle with a line through it

27 / 92

27) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

B) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

C) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

D) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

28 / 92

28) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

B) It increases individual responsibility

C) It allows individuals to work in isolation

D) It fosters communication and cooperation

29 / 92

29) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

B) Review their statement and the relevant case details

C) Wait until the last minute to arrive

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

30 / 92

30) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

B) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To avoid potential liability for issues

31 / 92

31) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

B) Water, heat, and oxygen

C) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

D) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

32 / 92

32) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Personal preferences in handling situations

B) Instructions from colleagues

C) Customer wishes and demands

D) SIA standards and the company's values

33 / 92

33) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Blocking access to all staircases

B) Ensuring security personnel leave first

C) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

D) Locking all entrances and exits

34 / 92

34) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

B) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

C) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

D) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

35 / 92

35) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

B) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

36 / 92

36) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

C) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

D) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

37 / 92

37) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) New opportunities for equipment

B) Good team-building activities

C) Financial bonuses

D) Effective practices

38 / 92

38) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) The approved contractor scheme

D) A security benefits scheme for employees

39 / 92

39) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Clear

B) Concise

C) Conclusion

D) Complete

40 / 92

40) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

B) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

D) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

41 / 92

41) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving petrol or paint

B) A fire involving butane gas

C) A fire involving hot cooking oils

D) A fire involving wood or rubber

42 / 92

42) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

B) Increasing entry fees for access control

C) Organizing private gatherings within the community

D) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

43 / 92

43) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

B) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

C) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

D) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

44 / 92

44) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Denying that there is any issue

B) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

C) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

D) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

45 / 92

45) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

B) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

C) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

D) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

46 / 92

46) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

B) Booking a taxi for the individual

C) Using local support organizations

D) Requesting assistance from the police

47 / 92

47) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Preventing interactions with the public

B) Ignoring minor incidents

C) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

D) High-visibility patrols

48 / 92

48) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

C) Training security personnel for private firms.

D) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

49 / 92

49) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A manager requesting information

D) A colleague seeking help with a task

50 / 92

50) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It can only be used indoors

B) It cannot record any criminal activities

C) It can only be used outdoors

D) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

51 / 92

51) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Foam

B) Wet chemical

C) CO2 Gas

D) Water

52 / 92

52) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

B) Recount only the seemingly important parts

C) List the names of all staff present

D) State the total number of visitors

53 / 92

53) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

B) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

C) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

D) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

54 / 92

54) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Assisting a lost individual

B) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

C) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

D) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

55 / 92

55) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

D) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

56 / 92

56) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Stop and search for the fire's source

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Sound the alarm

D) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

57 / 92

57) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

B) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

C) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

D) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

58 / 92

58) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

B) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

C) Reducing communication between team members

D) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

59 / 92

59) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child playing outdoors with friends

B) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

C) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

D) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

60 / 92

60) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

61 / 92

61) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To question the suspect about the offense

B) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

C) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

D) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

62 / 92

62) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Preparing to use physical restraints

B) Improving team morale

C) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

D) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

63 / 92

63) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

B) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

C) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

D) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

64 / 92

64) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

B) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

65 / 92

65) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To inform the media about the arrest

B) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

C) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

D) To immediately leave the scene

66 / 92

66) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

C) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

D) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

67 / 92

67) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Sending a text message

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Writing a polite email

68 / 92

68) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Attending an event with a group of friends

D) Being confident and energetic

69 / 92

69) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire hose

B) Fire blanket

C) Sprinkler system

D) Water

70 / 92

70) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

B) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

C) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

D) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

71 / 92

71) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

72 / 92

72) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Using an aggressive tone.

B) Being argumentative.

C) Speaking in a calm manner.

D) Providing written instructions.

73 / 92

73) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A slip on a wet floor

B) An epileptic seizure

C) A heart attack

D) A software update on a laptop

74 / 92

74) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Highly improbable

B) Nearly certain

C) Possible but unlikely

D) Unlikely but conceivable

75 / 92

75) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

B) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

C) To avoid any staff interactions

D) To reduce security visibility to the public

76 / 92

76) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Asking security staff for directions

77 / 92

77) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When planning breaks for security staff

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When dealing with aggressive customers

D) When managing office furniture layout

78 / 92

78) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Have no special powers of arrest

79 / 92

79) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

80 / 92

80) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Office receptionist

B) Private investigator

C) Manned Guarding

D) Delivery driver

81 / 92

81) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Check the building for any missing people

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

82 / 92

82) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

83 / 92

83) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

B) The state brings charges against individuals

C) Private individuals initiate cases in court

D) Local councils manage all cases

84 / 92

84) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

B) Notify the victim's family before taking action

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

85 / 92

85) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Assault

B) Breach of contract

C) Burglary

D) Murder

86 / 92

86) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Guiding security towards a distressed person

B) Offering aid to people in distress

C) Closely observing and tracking individuals

D) Engaging in group activities with friends

87 / 92

87) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Disposed of and logged

B) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

C) Preserved and handed over to the police

D) Photographed and then discarded

88 / 92

88) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime occurs

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Call the transport's customer service team

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

89 / 92

89) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) A verbal warning from their employer

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Requirement to attend additional training

90 / 92

90) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Deleted after one month

B) Shared on social media for awareness

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Accessible only by authorized personnel

91 / 92

91) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

C) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

92 / 92

92) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of fire exits

C) The location of first aid kits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

Your score is

The average score is 66%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

B) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

C) Moving people into a secure area in a building

D) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

2 / 64

2) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

B) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

C) Giving the customer all of the information at once

D) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

3 / 64

3) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

B) might be conducting suspicious activities

C) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

D) are an employee running late for a meeting

4 / 64

4) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) avoid any staff interactions

B) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) reduce security visibility to the public

D) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

5 / 64

5) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Optimised focus on work projects

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Enhanced team dynamics

6 / 64

6) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

D) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

7 / 64

7) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) A security benefits scheme for employees

B) Offering discounts to security companies

C) Recruiting new security officers

D) The approved contractor scheme

8 / 64

8) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A white circle with a black cross

B) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

C) A blue square with a cross

D) A red circle with a line through it

9 / 64

9) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

B) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

C) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

10 / 64

10) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

11 / 64

11) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Follow the company's procedures and policies

B) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

C) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

D) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

12 / 64

12) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

D) Requesting assistance with directions

13 / 64

13) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

C) Lift the load using the back muscles

D) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

14 / 64

14) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Water

B) Wet chemical

C) CO2 Gas

D) Foam

15 / 64

15) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) a police complaint

B) an assault

C) littering

D) parking offences

16 / 64

16) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Only document it if they require medical treatment

B) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

C) Report the injury to their employer

D) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

17 / 64

17) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Making a phone call

B) Using hand gestures

C) Speaking clearly to someone

D) Reading a text message aloud

18 / 64

18) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Help vulnerable people evacuate

C) Sound the alarm

D) Check the fire extinguishers

19 / 64

19) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A duty sheet

B) An accident report

C) A visitor log

D) A search register

20 / 64

20) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Samaritans

B) Citizens Advice Bureau

C) Trade unions

D) The local community centre

21 / 64

21) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

22 / 64

22) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Indifference

C) Dishonesty

D) Integrity

23 / 64

23) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

B) recognise areas for improvement

C) boost team morale

D) better understand how to escalate situations

24 / 64

24) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

B) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

C) To show authority and control over the situation

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

25 / 64

25) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child playing in a field with friends

B) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

C) A child being closely supervised by parents

D) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

26 / 64

26) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 200 metres

B) 300 metres

C) 100 metres

D) 400 metres

27 / 64

27) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Having a discussion with a family member

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

28 / 64

28) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Training employees in fire safety procedures

D) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

29 / 64

29) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To improve employee productivity and performance

B) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To limit employee movement around the premises

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

30 / 64

30) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Breach of contract

B) Murder

C) Burglary

D) Assault

31 / 64

31) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Planning out the route to the venue

B) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

C) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

D) Reviewing old criminal offences

32 / 64

32) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

B) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

C) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

D) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

33 / 64

33) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

B) Engaging the person with professional customer service

C) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

34 / 64

34) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A notice posted on a door

B) A security operative speaking to a customer

C) Listening to a colleague's opinion

D) A facial expression showing confusion

35 / 64

35) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is extremely unlikely

C) An attack is likely

D) An attack is possible but unlikely

36 / 64

36) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

C) A package left unattended

D) A colleague having an asthma attack

37 / 64

37) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

C) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

D) People freezing in place due to shock

38 / 64

38) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) promote high standards within the industry

B) guarantee low prices for security services

C) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) limit the number of security providers within the industry

39 / 64

39) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

40 / 64

40) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

B) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

C) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

D) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

41 / 64

41) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

C) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

42 / 64

42) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

B) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

C) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

43 / 64

43) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

B) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

C) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

D) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

44 / 64

44) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

C) Writing down passwords in a notebook

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

45 / 64

45) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Positive self-esteem

B) Changes in behaviour

C) Consistent injuries

D) Decrease in social interactions

46 / 64

46) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Cutting an individual to an employee

B) Only serious contagious diseases

C) Any disease not related to the workplace

D) Any disease related to the workplace

47 / 64

47) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

B) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

C) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

48 / 64

48) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

49 / 64

49) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

C) To gather information about the offence

D) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

50 / 64

50) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To make personal notes about customers

B) To improve the reputation of the venue

C) To comply with the law

D) To avoid working extra hours

51 / 64

51) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

B) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

C) To avoid contact with any key personnel

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

52 / 64

52) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

B) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

53 / 64

53) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It decreases the need for training and supervision

B) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

C) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

D) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

54 / 64

54) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

B) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

C) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

55 / 64

55) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

B) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

56 / 64

56) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) may result in increased stress for the security operative

B) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

D) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

57 / 64

57) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Adding more heat

B) Removing the fuel

C) Adding more oxygen

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

58 / 64

58) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Medical attention

B) Removal from the premises

C) Physical assistance

D) Clear communication

59 / 64

59) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To avoid complaints from individuals

D) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

60 / 64

60) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Lunch breaks

B) Pay and benefits

C) Team-building activities

D) Use of company resources

61 / 64

61) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To take away someone's liberty

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To escort someone to safety

D) To question someone about a crime

62 / 64

62) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

B) Reducing opportunities for crimes

C) Limiting communication between security teams

D) Promoting competition among local businesses

63 / 64

63) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Booking a taxi for the individual

B) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

C) Requesting assistance from the police

D) Using local support organisations

64 / 64

64) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Maintenance person

B) Customer support agent

C) Personal trainer

D) Vehicle immobiliser

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

B) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

C) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

D) The day-to-day operation of the premises

2 / 70

2) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Understanding customers

B) Violent behaviour

C) Being monitored by CCTV

D) Approachable customers

3 / 70

3) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Incidental

B) Direct

C) Hearsay

D) Forensic

4 / 70

4) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

B) Gaming or gambling without a licence

C) Solicitation

D) Drug dealing

5 / 70

5) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

B) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

C) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

D) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

6 / 70

6) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Rape

B) Common assault

C) Trespass

D) Grievous bodily harm

7 / 70

7) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

B) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

C) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

D) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

8 / 70

8) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) Clinical Waste

B) In the street refuse bin

C) In the regular trash container

D) In the broken glass bin

9 / 70

9) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

B) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

C) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

D) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

10 / 70

10) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Search anyway

B) Ring to the police

C) Reject their entry

D) Notify the manager

11 / 70

11) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) Specific individuals are searched

B) Random individuals are searched

C) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

D) All individuals is searched

12 / 70

12) The types of searches are:

A) National, Private, Public

B) Thorough, X-Ray, General

C) General, Random, Specific

D) General, Handpicked, Race related

13 / 70

13) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Use of toilets

B) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

C) Loud music

D) Consumption of food

14 / 70

14) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) Local Radio

B) By local MPs

C) National Threat Level information

D) Social Media outlets

15 / 70

15) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Assault, Theft, and Drug

B) Trespass, robbery and theft

C) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

D) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

16 / 70

16) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Documentary

B) Circumstantial

C) Forensic

D) Hearsay

17 / 70

17) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Drug dealing

B) Being aware

C) Drug use

D) Being intoxicated

18 / 70

18) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Common Assault

B) Grand Bodily Harm

C) Actual Bodily Harm

D) Grievous Bodily Harm

19 / 70

19) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

B) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

C) Monitoring drink sales performance

D) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

20 / 70

20) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

C) How many radios are available for use at the premises

D) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

21 / 70

21) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

B) Increase the likelihood of conflict

C) Decrease customer numbers

D) Increase customer numbers

22 / 70

22) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

B) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

C) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

D) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

23 / 70

23) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

B) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

C) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

D) Help prevent complaints from local residents

24 / 70

24) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

B) Investigate each customer in detail.

C) Withhold information from customers

D) Make way for VIPs

25 / 70

25) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Drug use

B) Fear

C) Exposure to carbon monoxide

D) Nervousness

26 / 70

26) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Amphetamines

B) Cannabis

C) Tranquilisers

D) Heroin

27 / 70

27) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 12-year prison sentence and fine

B) 20-year prison sentence

C) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

D) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

28 / 70

28) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) inqure a member of the bar staff

B) explore on the internet

C) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

D) Ask the venue’s manager

29 / 70

29) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

B) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

C) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

D) Could become a victim of a crime

30 / 70

30) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Writing the admission policy

B) Advertising venue theme nights

C) Ensuring the premises remains full

D) Promoting house rules

31 / 70

31) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Gloves

B) Ear defenders

C) Face shield

D) Safety goggles

32 / 70

32) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A customer

B) The manager

C) A door supervisor

D) A member of staff

33 / 70

33) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) minimize the bar queue time

B) promote customer to interact with each other

C) Improve customers’ safety

D) Show what a great venue you have

34 / 70

34) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A searchlight

B) An archway metal detector (AMD)

C) A search wand

D) A plastic detector

35 / 70

35) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Burglary

B) Theft

C) Loot

D) Sabotage

36 / 70

36) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

B) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

C) Obtain person's permission

D) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

37 / 70

37) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) Only in block capital letters

B) After consulting with supervisors

C) Whilst witnessing an incident

D) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

38 / 70

38) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

B) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

C) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

D) When the venue has a large queue

39 / 70

39) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

B) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

C) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

D) Call an ambulance

40 / 70

40) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

B) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

C) They identify those who have been banned.

D) They can be used by management for marketing

41 / 70

41) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Search individuals on entry

B) Inform the police of each event

C) Ban bags at the venue

D) Photograph customers on entry

42 / 70

42) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Incident log

B) Visitor log

C) Incident report

D) Incident questionnaire

43 / 70

43) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A female taking selfies with a male

B) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

C) A group of females chatting with a group of males

D) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

44 / 70

44) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

B) Get permission from the customer

C) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

D) Inform management that a search is in progress

45 / 70

45) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) They may not like the drinks served inside

B) It may help to reduce potential conflict

C) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

D) It helps customers to plan their evening

46 / 70

46) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

B) Record search details in your incident book

C) Carry search alone in a private area

D) Inform your manager

47 / 70

47) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

B) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

C) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

D) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

48 / 70

48) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Darts

B) Roulette

C) Pool

D) Chess

49 / 70

49) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

B) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

C) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

D) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

50 / 70

50) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) The race of the individual

B) The group of friends around an individual

C) Facial hair

D) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

51 / 70

51) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

B) Seize the item and deny them to enter

C) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

D) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

52 / 70

52) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Dilated pupils

B) Powder traces under the nose

C) Falling sleep

D) Unpredictable behavior

53 / 70

53) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class C

B) Class A

C) Class D

D) Class B

54 / 70

54) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

B) A Serious assault outside the venue

C) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

D) An argument between a couple inside the venue

55 / 70

55) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Make all venues aware of the incident

B) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

C) Follow the local seize and secure policy

D) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

56 / 70

56) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) Enforcing parking fines

B) Escorting customers home

C) The revenue of the business you work for

D) Ensuring admission policy is followed

57 / 70

57) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

C) How many radios are available for use at the premises

D) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

58 / 70

58) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) A search wand

B) An archway metal detector (AMD)

C) A searchlight

D) A plastic detector

59 / 70

59) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) Ejection of a customer

B) Drunk people outside the venue

C) An incident occurring inside the venue

D) Ejection of a customer

60 / 70

60) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Licensing objectives

B) Venue security measures

C) Licensing federation

D) Public safety regulation

61 / 70

61) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) When a problem is reported by someone

B) At all times to ensure safe queuing

C) When the numbers exceed 100

D) When barriers are moved by customers

62 / 70

62) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Unlawful entry

B) Criminal damage

C) Trespass

D) Offensive behavior

63 / 70

63) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) A personal weapon

B) An offensive weapon

C) A harmful weapon

D) A dangerous weapon

64 / 70

64) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

B) Power of closure

C) Confiscate musical equipment

D) Set new maximum occupancy limits

65 / 70

65) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Seal it in a plastic bag

B) Flush it down the toilet

C) Dispose in the general waste bin

D) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

66 / 70

66) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Destroy it yourself

B) Call the emergency services

C) Inform your supervisor

D) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

67 / 70

67) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Record the incident using a mobile phone

B) Contact the licensing officer

C) Contact the venue’s head office

D) Contact the emergency service

68 / 70

68) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

B) Keep customers entertained while waiting

C) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

D) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

69 / 70

69) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

B) They help to record all customers’ faces

C) They can be used by management for marketing

D) They identify those who have been banned

70 / 70

70) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

B) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

C) Document of those responsible in your notebook

D) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Can ignore injury

B) Will continue to perform well

C) May get disciplined

D) Will avoid being disciplined

2 / 50

2) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) By criticising the actions of the customer

B) Showing empathy towards the customer

C) Being bossy towards the customer

D) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

3 / 50

3) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Victim Support

B) Samaritans

C) Crime Stoppers

D) Child Line

4 / 50

4) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

B) It minimizes the chances of a risk

C) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

D) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

5 / 50

5) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Loses face

B) Made to feel welcome

C) Shocked

D) Treated like a valued guest

6 / 50

6) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

B) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

C) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

D) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

7 / 50

7) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Angry

B) Empowered

C) Motivated

D) Optimistic

8 / 50

8) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Note down the instructions

B) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

C) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

D) Develop a rapport with the customer

9 / 50

9) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fighting back

B) Being rude

C) Fear of retaliation

D) Ignoring the legal consequences

10 / 50

10) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) May get disciplined

B) Will ignore being disciplined

C) might avoid injury

D) Will still do a nice job

11 / 50

11) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Facing the other person directly

B) Dodging eye contact

C) gesturing with open palms

D) only paying partial attention to the other person

12 / 50

12) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) A spin-off

B) Empathic

C) A win-win

D) Compromised

13 / 50

13) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Concise communication

B) Effective communication

C) Poor communication

D) Persuasive communication

14 / 50

14) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and emotional

B) Rational and psychological

C) Rational and social

D) Irrational and emotional

15 / 50

15) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Not listening to the customer

B) Speaking to the customer seriously

C) Being assertive towards the customer

D) Advising to the customer

16 / 50

16) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

B) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

C) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

D) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

17 / 50

17) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak calmly

B) Speak aggressively

C) Speak loudly

D) Speak quickly

18 / 50

18) Empathy means being able to:

A) Understand another person’s point of view

B) Ignore someone else's opinion

C) Share someone else's opinion

D) Encourage another person’s perception

19 / 50

19) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) Any direction given is followed

B) The outcome is successful

C) Your opinion is heard

D) They complain to management

20 / 50

20) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

B) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

D) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

21 / 50

21) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

B) Threaten to call the police

C) Take one to another room to separate them

D) Force to stop an argument

22 / 50

22) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

B) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

C) Exert all available force

D) Kick the customer out without warning

23 / 50

23) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Not providing relevant information

B) Being fearful of the consequences

C) Being disregarded

D) Being kept waiting

24 / 50

24) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

B) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

C) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

D) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

25 / 50

25) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

B) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

C) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

D) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

26 / 50

26) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

B) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

C) Having strong personal values

D) Being unsure of what action is taken

27 / 50

27) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To pick up trends

B) Make a positive impression on your manager

C) To get a promotion

D) To get increase in salary

28 / 50

28) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Physical barrier

B) Political barrier

C) Social barrier

D) Psychological barrier

29 / 50

29) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Motivation

B) Recognition

C) Humiliation

D) Stimulus

30 / 50

30) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Stand further away from the employee

B) Begin to use abusive personal language

C) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

D) Bully at them and tell jokes

31 / 50

31) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

B) Being assertive

C) Being threatening

D) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

32 / 50

32) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

B) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

C) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

D) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

33 / 50

33) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Assertive

B) Capable

C) Motivated

D) Patronised

34 / 50

34) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Awareness

B) Frustration

C) Assertiveness

D) Empathy

35 / 50

35) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

B) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

C) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

D) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

36 / 50

36) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) The customer departing

B) An argument

C) Loss of your employment

D) Have your driver's license suspended

37 / 50

37) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Minimal

B) Suitable

C) Reasonable

D) Mandatory

38 / 50

38) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

B) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

C) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

D) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

39 / 50

39) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You cannot guarantee victory

B) You might be fired from your workplace

C) For the safety of yourself and others

D) The customer might bring his friends

40 / 50

40) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

D) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

41 / 50

41) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

B) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

42 / 50

42) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

B) It empowers the customer to take charge

C) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

D) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

43 / 50

43) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Нарру

B) Comfortable

C) Insulted

D) Appreciated

44 / 50

44) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Violence

B) Assertiveness

C) Frustration

D) Patience

45 / 50

45) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The manager

B) The Victim Support Scheme

C) The lead security operative

D) The Local Council

46 / 50

46) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Mandatory

B) Approachable

C) Less

D) Reasonable

47 / 50

47) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Different cultures

B) Various clothes

C) Different eye colour

D) Diverse hair colour

48 / 50

48) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Tell the manager

B) Try to force their way past the employee

C) Try to talk their way out of the situation

D) Hold until the employee moves

49 / 50

49) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their heartbeat decelerates

B) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

C) Their hearing tunes into the threat

D) Their thought processes become more logical

50 / 50

50) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

B) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

C) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

D) The conflict will remain unresolved

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

B) May lose interest in the physical intervention

C) May feel threatened by others

D) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

2 / 69

2) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

B) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

C) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

D) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

3 / 69

3) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Criminal prosecution of those involved

B) Suffering endured by the people involved.

C) Loss of wages of those involved

D) Advancement of the people concerned

4 / 69

4) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Is advertised

B) Could lose their license

C) Make more money at the venue

D) Promotes safety

5 / 69

5) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Paying less

B) Enhanced social media presence

C) Promotion to head door supervisor

D) Civil litigation from the injured party

6 / 69

6) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

B) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

C) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

D) Chance of being uploaded to social media

7 / 69

7) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Physical aggression.

B) CCTV

C) Verbal escalation

D) Handcuffs

8 / 69

8) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

B) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

C) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

D) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

9 / 69

9) What does the word Static mean?

A) Unchanging

B) In a state ready to be physical

C) In a defensive state

D) In the right state

10 / 69

10) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

B) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

C) All employers ask for it

D) Legislation may change

11 / 69

11) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

B) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

C) Staff should not write anything down

D) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

12 / 69

12) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) Ignore any signs of medical issues

B) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

C) Hold them down until they calm down

D) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

13 / 69

13) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) Skillset of the door supervisor

B) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

C) Skillset of the subject

D) Method of restraint

14 / 69

14) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Hypothermia

B) Hypohydration

C) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

D) Mental health issues

15 / 69

15) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Positional asphyxia

B) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

C) Lowered blood pressure

D) Lowered body temperature

16 / 69

16) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Physical intervention is illegal

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

D) Physical intervention is used before anything else

17 / 69

17) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Get rid of any evidence

B) Safeguard evidence

C) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

D) Gather statements from all witnesses

18 / 69

18) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

B) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

C) It could impair breathing

D) It could impair hearing

19 / 69

19) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

B) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

C) When the incident occurred

D) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

20 / 69

20) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Standing restrictive restraint

B) Face down (prone)

C) Face up (supine)

D) Standing non- restrictive restraint

21 / 69

21) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

B) Rational

C) Respectable

D) Reasonable

22 / 69

22) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Effective communication

B) Handcuffs

C) Unnecessary force

D) Martial arts

23 / 69

23) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) A promotion for all involved

B) An increased risk of harm

C) An increase in venue insurance costs

D) A pay increase

24 / 69

24) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

B) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

C) Defensive skills are responsive

D) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

25 / 69

25) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

B) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

C) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

D) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

26 / 69

26) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

B) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

C) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

D) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

27 / 69

27) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Prohibited from entering the venue

B) Exposed to further injury or harm

C) Forced to leave the venue

D) Taken into custody

28 / 69

28) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Improvised weapons being carried

B) Medical distress

C) Self-destructive behavior

D) Law enforcement activity

29 / 69

29) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

B) Place of the intervention

C) Gender identity of the person

D) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

30 / 69

30) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) A lower body temperature

B) A lower heart rate

C) Unrestricted breathing

D) An inability to breathe

31 / 69

31) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) What is the number of attendees

B) A taxi queue

C) That the individual is conscious and breathing

D) The time

32 / 69

32) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

B) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

C) Handling the individual independently.

D) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

33 / 69

33) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

B) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

C) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

D) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

34 / 69

34) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

B) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

C) You are more vulnerable on the floor

D) You should always maintain an authoritative position

35 / 69

35) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) As soon as practically possible

B) Whilst the witnesses are still present

C) Within 72 hours of the incident

D) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

36 / 69

36) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

B) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

C) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

D) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

37 / 69

37) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

B) All employers ask for references

C) Legislation may change

D) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

38 / 69

38) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

B) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

C) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

D) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

39 / 69

39) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Physical intervention is used before anything else

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Physical intervention is illegal

D) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

40 / 69

40) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Withdraw/De-escalate

B) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

C) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

D) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

41 / 69

41) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

B) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

C) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

D) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

42 / 69

42) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

B) Call for help

C) Put the customer in the recovery position

D) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

43 / 69

43) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Excessive Sweating

B) Having a regular pulse

C) Being cold and calmly to touch

D) Bleeding from the skin

44 / 69

44) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

B) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

C) Guidelines for restraining another person.

D) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

45 / 69

45) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Medical distress

B) Law enforcement presence

C) Self-inflicted injuries

D) Equipped with weapons

46 / 69

46) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Having a low breathing rate

B) Having a low pulse rate

C) Showing bizarre behaviour

D) Agreeing to requests

47 / 69

47) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Control and restraint

B) Violence

C) Use of self-defense weapon

D) Conflict management

48 / 69

48) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

B) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

C) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

D) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

49 / 69

49) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

B) Customer may become impatient

C) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

D) Customer may become easier to deal with

50 / 69

50) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

B) Decide who requires further training in restraint

C) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

D) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

51 / 69

51) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

B) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

C) Strength, and safety

D) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

52 / 69

52) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

B) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

C) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

D) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

53 / 69

53) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Any restraint that impairs breathing

B) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

C) Not using physical restraints

D) Calmly talking to customers

54 / 69

54) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

B) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

C) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

D) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

55 / 69

55) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) The number of followers the subject has no social media

B) The threat posted by the subject

C) What outfit the subject is wearing

D) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

56 / 69

56) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Low temperature

B) Tranquility

C) Low blood pressure

D) Unexpected or increase strength

57 / 69

57) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Encourage secondary control alternatives

B) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

C) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

D) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

58 / 69

58) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

B) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

C) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

D) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

59 / 69

59) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) An increased risk of harm

B) An upgrade for all involved

C) Increase in compensation

D) A rise in venue insurance costs

60 / 69

60) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person has stolen property hidden on them

B) The persons age, size and weight

C) The person is drunk or on drugs

D) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

61 / 69

61) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

B) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

C) Determine who is accountable for the incident

D) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

62 / 69

62) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Positional asphyxia

B) Low body temperature

C) Low blood pressure

D) Calmness

63 / 69

63) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Use of handcuffs and ties

B) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

C) Tactics to keep yourself safe

D) Techniques which isolate the individual

64 / 69

64) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

B) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

C) The door supervisor should use communication skills

D) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

65 / 69

65) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should return to work immediately

B) Staff should be given support

C) Staff should get a warning

D) Staff should get a pay rise

66 / 69

66) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) Head lock

B) 3-point restraint

C) Prone Restraint

D) Viable safety restraint

67 / 69

67) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) The use of a weapon

B) Control and restraint

C) The use of pepper spray

D) Conflict management

68 / 69

68) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Use of handcuffs or ties

B) Tactics to keep yourself safe

C) Techniques which isolate the individual

D) Conflict management skills

69 / 69

69) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

B) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

C) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

D) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

Quick Links

Upcoming Training Courses

SIA Approved Security Training Course

Our Security Services

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Forms & Submissions

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