Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

B) Requesting assistance with directions

C) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

D) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

2 / 99

2) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

B) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

C) Something that might cause occasional distractions

D) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

3 / 99

3) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Vehicle immobilizer

B) Personal trainer

C) Customer support agent

D) Maintenance person

4 / 99

4) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Directing security to a distressed individual

B) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

C) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

D) Taking part in group activities with friends

5 / 99

5) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

C) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

6 / 99

6) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Optimized focus on work projects

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Enhanced team dynamics

7 / 99

7) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire extinguishers

B) The location of fire exits

C) The location of hazardous materials

D) The location of first aid kits

8 / 99

8) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

B) Hosting private social events for the community

C) Increasing entry fees to control access

D) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

9 / 99

9) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

B) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

C) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

D) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

10 / 99

10) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

B) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

D) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

11 / 99

11) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Training employees in fire safety procedures

B) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

C) Providing first aid to injured staff

D) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

12 / 99

12) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

13 / 99

13) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Have no special powers of arrest

B) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

14 / 99

14) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

15 / 99

15) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

B) To provide contact details for medical services

C) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

16 / 99

16) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Providing immediate medical attention

B) Removing them from the premises

C) Clear and concise communication

D) Offering physical assistance

17 / 99

17) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is possible but unlikely

B) An attack is extremely unlikely

C) An attack is likely

D) An attack is highly likely

18 / 99

18) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

B) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

C) Are an employee running late for a meeting

D) Might be conducting suspicious activities

19 / 99

19) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Common illnesses among employees

B) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

C) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

D) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

20 / 99

20) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for public awareness

B) Deleted after one month

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Accessed only by authorized personnel

21 / 99

21) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To estimate costs for safety equipment

B) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To limit employee movement around the premises

22 / 99

22) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

23 / 99

23) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

B) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

24 / 99

24) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Guiding someone to a safe place

B) Depriving someone of their freedom

C) Informing someone of their legal rights

D) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

25 / 99

25) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

D) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

26 / 99

26) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

D) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

27 / 99

27) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

C) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

D) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

28 / 99

28) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

C) Guarantee low prices for security services

D) Promote high standards within the industry

29 / 99

29) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for future issues

B) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

30 / 99

30) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

B) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

31 / 99

31) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

C) To gather information about the offense

D) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

32 / 99

32) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

C) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

D) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

33 / 99

33) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

B) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

C) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

D) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

34 / 99

34) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Writing down instructions

B) Speaking in an aggressive tone

C) Being confrontational

D) Speaking calmly

35 / 99

35) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is almost certain to happen

B) When it is possible but not likely

C) When it is unlikely but still possible

D) When it is highly improbable

36 / 99

36) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside work

B) Dress code policies

C) Potential promotions within the company

D) Work-related personal projects

37 / 99

37) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

B) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

C) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

D) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

38 / 99

38) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

39 / 99

39) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Promoting competition among local businesses

B) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

C) Limiting communication between security teams

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

40 / 99

40) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

B) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

C) To submit complaints against security personnel

D) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

41 / 99

41) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

D) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

42 / 99

42) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

D) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

43 / 99

43) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Directly confront the individual

B) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

C) Contact the transport's customer service team

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

44 / 99

44) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It removes the need to contact emergency services

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

45 / 99

45) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) May result in increased stress for the security operative

B) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

C) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

D) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

46 / 99

46) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To avoid working extra hours

B) To comply with legal requirements

C) To improve the reputation of the venue

D) To make personal notes about customers

47 / 99

47) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Preventing interactions with the public

B) Ignoring minor incidents

C) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

D) Conducting highly visible patrols

48 / 99

48) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

49 / 99

49) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Temporary suspension from their job

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Verbal warning from their employer

50 / 99

50) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

B) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

C) Increased exposure to potential violence

D) Reduced access to basic health support

51 / 99

51) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

B) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To show authority and control over the situation

52 / 99

52) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Having a discussion with a family member

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

53 / 99

53) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Being under the influence of alcohol

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

54 / 99

54) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

B) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

C) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

D) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

55 / 99

55) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Hacking into a company's computer systems

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Use of firearms

D) Release of dangerous substances

56 / 99

56) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Changes in behavior

B) Decrease in social interactions

C) Consistent injuries

D) Positive self-esteem

57 / 99

57) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Giving the customer all of the information at once

B) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

C) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

D) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

58 / 99

58) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

B) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

C) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

D) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

59 / 99

59) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

60 / 99

60) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

C) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

D) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

61 / 99

61) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Adding more heat

B) Removing the carbon dioxide

C) Adding more oxygen

D) Removing the fuel

62 / 99

62) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Training security staff for private companies

B) Regulating the security industry through licensing

C) Offering financial support to security contractors

D) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

63 / 99

63) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A search register

B) A visitor log

C) An accident report

D) A duty sheet

64 / 99

64) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

B) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

D) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

65 / 99

65) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Freezing and surrendering

B) Calmly walking away

C) Searching for a crowded area

D) Fight or flight

66 / 99

66) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

B) Recording shift instructions and break durations

C) Documenting found items

D) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

67 / 99

67) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A security operative speaking to a customer

B) A facial expression showing confusion

C) Listening to a colleague's opinion

D) A notice posted on a door

68 / 99

68) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

B) Separate the victim from the attacker

C) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

D) Notify the victim's family before taking action

69 / 99

69) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

B) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

C) Activate the fire alarm

D) Immediately evacuate the building

70 / 99

70) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

71 / 99

71) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Reading a text message aloud

C) Making a phone call

D) Using hand gestures

72 / 99

72) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A package left unattended

B) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

73 / 99

73) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

B) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

C) To completely overlook the incident and move on

D) To review an incident but take no reflective action

74 / 99

74) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

B) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

C) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

D) Photograph it and then throw it away

75 / 99

75) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

B) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

C) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

D) To avoid supporting each individual customer

76 / 99

76) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Dishonesty

C) Indifference

D) Integrity

77 / 99

77) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It leads to more competition among staff

B) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

C) It means fewer security staff are needed

D) It increases individual recognition

78 / 99

78) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

C) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

79 / 99

79) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual who appears disoriented

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

80 / 99

80) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

B) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

C) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

81 / 99

81) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of staff present

B) State the total number of visitors

C) Recount only the parts that seem important

D) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

82 / 99

82) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Personal preferences for handling situations

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) SIA standards and the company's established values

D) Instructions from colleagues

83 / 99

83) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

84 / 99

84) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

D) Call their superior before taking any actions

85 / 99

85) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Engaging the person with professional customer service

B) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

C) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

D) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

86 / 99

86) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Alert the appropriate emergency services

B) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

C) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

D) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

87 / 99

87) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A manager requesting information

B) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

C) A colleague asking for help with a task

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

88 / 99

88) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When interacting with hostile customers

B) When arranging office furniture

C) When discussing personal matters outside of work

D) When scheduling breaks for security staff

89 / 99

89) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A heart attack

C) A software update on a laptop

D) A slip on a wet floor

90 / 99

90) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Providing legal representation to businesses

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

91 / 99

91) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Social media platforms

B) Online gaming communities

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Colleagues and management

92 / 99

92) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It enables individuals to work independently

B) It promotes communication and collaboration

C) It increases individual accountability

D) It encourages competition among colleagues

93 / 99

93) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Deny there's any problem

B) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

C) Ignore their complaints directly

D) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

94 / 99

94) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) Littering

B) A noise complaint

C) An assault

D) Parking offenses

95 / 99

95) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Reviewing old criminal offenses

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

96 / 99

96) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) The state brings the cases against individuals

B) Local councils handle all the cases

C) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

D) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

97 / 99

97) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Lift the load using the back muscles

B) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

C) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

D) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

98 / 99

98) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Sending a text message

C) Writing a polite email

D) Using hand signals to direct someone

99 / 99

99) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

B) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

Your score is

The average score is 61%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Sprinkler system

B) Fire hose

C) Water

D) Fire blanket

2 / 92

2) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

B) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

C) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

D) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

3 / 92

3) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of all staff present

B) Recount only the seemingly important parts

C) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

D) State the total number of visitors

4 / 92

4) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Avoid communication with their legal representative

B) Review their statement and the relevant case details

C) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

D) Wait until the last minute to arrive

5 / 92

5) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Dress code policies

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Potential promotions within the company

D) Employee social gatherings outside of work

6 / 92

6) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Stop and search for the fire's source

B) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Sound the alarm

7 / 92

7) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) The state brings charges against individuals

B) Local councils manage all cases

C) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

D) Private individuals initiate cases in court

8 / 92

8) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

B) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

C) Inform a manager and record the incident.

D) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

9 / 92

9) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

B) Denying that there is any issue

C) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

D) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

10 / 92

10) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

11 / 92

11) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

B) Notify the victim's family before taking action

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

12 / 92

12) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A fire

B) A water leak

C) A power outage

D) A gas leak

13 / 92

13) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Samaritans

B) Citizens Advice Bureau

C) The local community center

D) Trade unions

14 / 92

14) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

B) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

C) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

D) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

15 / 92

15) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It increases risks for both staff and the public

B) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

C) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

D) It reduces the need for training and oversight

16 / 92

16) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

B) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Asking security staff for directions

17 / 92

17) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Writing a polite email

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Smiling or frowning

18 / 92

18) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To help them avoid discussing the incident

C) To review an incident without taking reflective action

D) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

19 / 92

19) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

B) To avoid any staff interactions

C) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

D) To reduce security visibility to the public

20 / 92

20) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A colleague seeking help with a task

C) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

D) A manager requesting information

21 / 92

21) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

B) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

C) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

22 / 92

22) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

B) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

C) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

D) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

23 / 92

23) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A blue square with a cross

B) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

C) A red circle with a line through it

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

24 / 92

24) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

B) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

C) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

D) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

25 / 92

25) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual responsibility

B) It allows individuals to work in isolation

C) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

D) It fosters communication and cooperation

26 / 92

26) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 200 meters.

B) Approximately 100 meters.

C) Approximately 400 meters.

D) Approximately 300 meters.

27 / 92

27) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

C) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

28 / 92

28) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

29 / 92

29) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

B) Recording shift instructions and break times

C) Documenting visitor logs

D) Documenting found items

30 / 92

30) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The release of hazardous substances.

B) Theft of sensitive information.

C) The use of firearms.

D) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

31 / 92

31) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

B) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

C) Assisting a lost individual

D) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

32 / 92

32) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

D) Have no special powers of arrest

33 / 92

33) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

B) What they observed and their names

C) Any previous self-protection training they had

D) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

34 / 92

34) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

B) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

C) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

D) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

35 / 92

35) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Check the fire extinguishers

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Help vulnerable people evacuate

D) Sound the alarm

36 / 92

36) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Guiding security towards a distressed person

B) Closely observing and tracking individuals

C) Offering aid to people in distress

D) Engaging in group activities with friends

37 / 92

37) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Conclusion

B) Concise

C) Complete

D) Clear

38 / 92

38) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving butane gas

B) A fire involving hot cooking oils

C) A fire involving wood or rubber

D) A fire involving petrol or paint

39 / 92

39) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

B) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

C) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

D) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

40 / 92

40) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When managing office furniture layout

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When planning breaks for security staff

D) When dealing with aggressive customers

41 / 92

41) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Reducing communication between team members

B) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

C) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

D) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

42 / 92

42) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Private investigator

B) Office receptionist

C) Manned Guarding

D) Delivery driver

43 / 92

43) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class B

B) Class D

C) Class A

D) Class F

44 / 92

44) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

B) It removes the need to call emergency services

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It eliminates the need for other security measures

45 / 92

45) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Try to administer first aid without training

C) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

D) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

46 / 92

46) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

B) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

C) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

D) Limited access to basic health support.

47 / 92

47) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Improving team morale

B) Preparing to use physical restraints

C) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

D) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

48 / 92

48) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) A verbal warning from their employer

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Civil or criminal prosecution

49 / 92

49) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Personal preferences in handling situations

B) SIA standards and the company's values

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Customer wishes and demands

50 / 92

50) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime occurs

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Call the transport's customer service team

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

51 / 92

51) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Wet chemical

B) CO2 Gas

C) Foam

D) Water

52 / 92

52) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

B) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

C) Water, heat, and oxygen

D) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

53 / 92

53) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

C) To question the suspect about the offense

D) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

54 / 92

54) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

B) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

C) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

55 / 92

55) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Financial bonuses

B) New opportunities for equipment

C) Effective practices

D) Good team-building activities

56 / 92

56) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Managing public relations for private companies

57 / 92

57) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

B) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

C) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

D) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

58 / 92

58) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Disposed of and logged

B) Photographed and then discarded

C) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

D) Preserved and handed over to the police

59 / 92

59) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Using local support organizations

B) Requesting assistance from the police

C) Booking a taxi for the individual

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

60 / 92

60) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

C) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

61 / 92

61) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A heart attack

62 / 92

62) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

B) To avoid attending required safety training.

C) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

D) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

63 / 92

63) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

B) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

C) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

64 / 92

64) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

B) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

D) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

65 / 92

65) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

B) Ignoring minor incidents

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) High-visibility patrols

66 / 92

66) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Speaking in a calm manner.

B) Providing written instructions.

C) Being argumentative.

D) Using an aggressive tone.

67 / 92

67) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Detain the individual

B) Escort the individual off the premises

C) Proceed to question the individual

D) Immediately search the individual

68 / 92

68) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Locking all entrances and exits

B) Ensuring security personnel leave first

C) Blocking access to all staircases

D) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

69 / 92

69) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) A security benefits scheme for employees

B) The approved contractor scheme

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) Recruiting new security officers

70 / 92

70) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

71 / 92

71) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of common colds among employees

B) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

C) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

D) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

72 / 92

72) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Assault

B) Burglary

C) Murder

D) Breach of contract

73 / 92

73) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

B) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

C) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

D) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

74 / 92

74) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

D) Check the building for any missing people

75 / 92

75) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

C) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

76 / 92

76) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

C) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

D) People freezing in place due to shock

77 / 92

77) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for issues

B) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

C) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

D) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

78 / 92

78) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Compensation and employee benefits

B) Access to company resources

C) Participation in team-building activities

D) Allocation of lunch breaks

79 / 92

79) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

B) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

C) It ensures no one will challenge actions

D) It prevents involvement from local authorities

80 / 92

80) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Nearly certain

B) Unlikely but conceivable

C) Possible but unlikely

D) Highly improbable

81 / 92

81) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

B) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

C) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

82 / 92

82) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

B) An individual who appears disoriented

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

83 / 92

83) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Accessible only by authorized personnel

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Shared on social media for awareness

D) Deleted after one month

84 / 92

84) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It cannot record any criminal activities

B) It can only be used indoors

C) It can only be used outdoors

D) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

85 / 92

85) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

B) Organizing private gatherings within the community

C) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

D) Increasing entry fees for access control

86 / 92

86) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

B) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

C) A child playing outdoors with friends

D) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

87 / 92

87) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

B) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

88 / 92

88) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

B) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

C) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

89 / 92

89) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Contacting emergency services.

B) Investigating the cause before taking action.

C) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

D) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

90 / 92

90) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

B) To immediately leave the scene

C) To inform the media about the arrest

D) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

91 / 92

91) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

B) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

C) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

D) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

92 / 92

92) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of first aid kits

D) The location of fire exits

Your score is

The average score is 66%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

C) Promoting competition among local businesses

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

2 / 64

2) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Help vulnerable people evacuate

C) Check the fire extinguishers

D) Sound the alarm

3 / 64

3) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Breach of contract

B) Burglary

C) Murder

D) Assault

4 / 64

4) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Pay and benefits

B) Team-building activities

C) Lunch breaks

D) Use of company resources

5 / 64

5) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

6 / 64

6) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Foam

B) CO2 Gas

C) Water

D) Wet chemical

7 / 64

7) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

8 / 64

8) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Customer support agent

B) Maintenance person

C) Personal trainer

D) Vehicle immobiliser

9 / 64

9) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A facial expression showing confusion

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

10 / 64

10) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

B) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

C) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

11 / 64

11) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Moving people into a secure area in a building

B) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

C) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

D) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

12 / 64

12) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Changes in behaviour

B) Positive self-esteem

C) Consistent injuries

D) Decrease in social interactions

13 / 64

13) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) guarantee low prices for security services

B) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

C) limit the number of security providers within the industry

D) promote high standards within the industry

14 / 64

14) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A visitor log

B) A search register

C) A duty sheet

D) An accident report

15 / 64

15) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Having a discussion with a family member

16 / 64

16) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

B) are an employee running late for a meeting

C) might be conducting suspicious activities

D) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

17 / 64

17) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To avoid complaints from individuals

B) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

C) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

D) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

18 / 64

18) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

19 / 64

19) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is possible but unlikely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is likely

20 / 64

20) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) reduce security visibility to the public

B) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

C) avoid any staff interactions

D) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

21 / 64

21) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

B) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

C) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

D) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

22 / 64

22) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

B) To avoid contact with any key personnel

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

23 / 64

23) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

B) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

C) A child being closely supervised by parents

D) A child playing in a field with friends

24 / 64

24) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 200 metres

B) 400 metres

C) 100 metres

D) 300 metres

25 / 64

25) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

B) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

C) Engaging the person with professional customer service

D) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

26 / 64

26) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

B) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

C) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

D) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

27 / 64

27) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Clear communication

B) Physical assistance

C) Medical attention

D) Removal from the premises

28 / 64

28) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

29 / 64

29) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Training employees in fire safety procedures

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

D) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

30 / 64

30) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It decreases the need for training and supervision

C) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

D) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

31 / 64

31) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

D) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

32 / 64

32) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

33 / 64

33) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Making a phone call

C) Using hand gestures

D) Reading a text message aloud

34 / 64

34) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with the law

B) To improve the reputation of the venue

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To make personal notes about customers

35 / 64

35) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

C) Reviewing old criminal offences

D) Planning out the route to the venue

36 / 64

36) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To question someone about a crime

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To escort someone to safety

D) To take away someone's liberty

37 / 64

37) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

38 / 64

38) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Any disease not related to the workplace

B) Any disease related to the workplace

C) Cutting an individual to an employee

D) Only serious contagious diseases

39 / 64

39) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To make the communication sound more complex

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

40 / 64

40) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

C) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

D) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

41 / 64

41) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

D) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

42 / 64

42) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

B) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

C) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

D) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

43 / 64

43) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A blue square with a cross

B) A white circle with a black cross

C) A red circle with a line through it

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

44 / 64

44) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Developing negative coping mechanisms

B) Enhanced team dynamics

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Optimised focus on work projects

45 / 64

45) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To improve employee productivity and performance

B) To limit employee movement around the premises

C) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

46 / 64

46) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

C) may result in increased stress for the security operative

D) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

47 / 64

47) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

B) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

C) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

D) Follow the company's procedures and policies

48 / 64

48) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) a police complaint

B) an assault

C) littering

D) parking offences

49 / 64

49) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

B) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Try to administer first aid without training

50 / 64

50) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

D) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

51 / 64

51) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

B) Requesting assistance from the police

C) Booking a taxi for the individual

D) Using local support organisations

52 / 64

52) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) boost team morale

B) recognise areas for improvement

C) better understand how to escalate situations

D) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

53 / 64

53) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Adding more heat

B) Removing the fuel

C) Removing the carbon dioxide

D) Adding more oxygen

54 / 64

54) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

B) To ensure property is not damaged

C) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

D) To gather information about the offence

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) A colleague having an asthma attack

C) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

D) A package left unattended

56 / 64

56) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Indifference

B) Integrity

C) Dishonesty

D) Aggression

57 / 64

57) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) A security benefits scheme for employees

B) The approved contractor scheme

C) Recruiting new security officers

D) Offering discounts to security companies

58 / 64

58) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) The local community centre

C) Samaritans

D) Citizens Advice Bureau

59 / 64

59) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

B) To show authority and control over the situation

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

60 / 64

60) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

B) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

C) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

D) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

61 / 64

61) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

B) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

C) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

D) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

62 / 64

62) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

B) Report the injury to their employer

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

63 / 64

63) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

64 / 64

64) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

C) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

D) Lift the load using the back muscles

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) Show what a great venue you have

B) minimize the bar queue time

C) promote customer to interact with each other

D) Improve customers’ safety

2 / 70

2) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) After consulting with supervisors

B) Only in block capital letters

C) Whilst witnessing an incident

D) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

3 / 70

3) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) How many radios are available for use at the premises

B) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

C) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

D) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

4 / 70

4) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) It may help to reduce potential conflict

B) They may not like the drinks served inside

C) It helps customers to plan their evening

D) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

5 / 70

5) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A door supervisor

B) A member of staff

C) A customer

D) The manager

6 / 70

6) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) When a problem is reported by someone

B) At all times to ensure safe queuing

C) When the numbers exceed 100

D) When barriers are moved by customers

7 / 70

7) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) An incident occurring inside the venue

B) Ejection of a customer

C) Ejection of a customer

D) Drunk people outside the venue

8 / 70

8) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Loot

B) Sabotage

C) Burglary

D) Theft

9 / 70

9) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Reject their entry

B) Ring to the police

C) Search anyway

D) Notify the manager

10 / 70

10) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) When the venue has a large queue

B) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

C) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

D) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

11 / 70

11) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

B) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

C) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

D) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

12 / 70

12) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Unpredictable behavior

B) Powder traces under the nose

C) Dilated pupils

D) Falling sleep

13 / 70

13) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Set new maximum occupancy limits

B) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

C) Confiscate musical equipment

D) Power of closure

14 / 70

14) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A search wand

B) A plastic detector

C) An archway metal detector (AMD)

D) A searchlight

15 / 70

15) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Unlawful entry

B) Trespass

C) Criminal damage

D) Offensive behavior

16 / 70

16) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Trespass

B) Rape

C) Common assault

D) Grievous bodily harm

17 / 70

17) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

B) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

C) Monitoring drink sales performance

D) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

18 / 70

18) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 20-year prison sentence

B) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

C) 12-year prison sentence and fine

D) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

19 / 70

19) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) Ask the venue’s manager

B) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

C) explore on the internet

D) inqure a member of the bar staff

20 / 70

20) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) Ensuring admission policy is followed

B) The revenue of the business you work for

C) Enforcing parking fines

D) Escorting customers home

21 / 70

21) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class C

B) Class B

C) Class D

D) Class A

22 / 70

22) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Writing the admission policy

B) Ensuring the premises remains full

C) Advertising venue theme nights

D) Promoting house rules

23 / 70

23) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) The day-to-day operation of the premises

B) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

C) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

D) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

24 / 70

24) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Common Assault

B) Grievous Bodily Harm

C) Grand Bodily Harm

D) Actual Bodily Harm

25 / 70

25) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

B) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

C) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

D) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

26 / 70

26) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

B) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

C) Follow the local seize and secure policy

D) Make all venues aware of the incident

27 / 70

27) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

B) A female taking selfies with a male

C) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

D) A group of females chatting with a group of males

28 / 70

28) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They identify those who have been banned

B) They can be used by management for marketing

C) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

D) They help to record all customers’ faces

29 / 70

29) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) Social Media outlets

B) By local MPs

C) National Threat Level information

D) Local Radio

30 / 70

30) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Contact the venue’s head office

B) Contact the emergency service

C) Contact the licensing officer

D) Record the incident using a mobile phone

31 / 70

31) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Document of those responsible in your notebook

B) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

C) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

D) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

32 / 70

32) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

B) Keep customers entertained while waiting

C) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

D) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

33 / 70

33) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Make way for VIPs

B) Investigate each customer in detail.

C) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

D) Withhold information from customers

34 / 70

34) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Help prevent complaints from local residents

B) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

C) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

D) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

35 / 70

35) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Being aware

B) Drug dealing

C) Being intoxicated

D) Drug use

36 / 70

36) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

B) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

C) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

D) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

37 / 70

37) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

B) Increase the likelihood of conflict

C) Increase customer numbers

D) Decrease customer numbers

38 / 70

38) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Consumption of food

B) Loud music

C) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

D) Use of toilets

39 / 70

39) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) A search wand

B) A plastic detector

C) A searchlight

D) An archway metal detector (AMD)

40 / 70

40) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Inform management that a search is in progress

B) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

C) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

D) Get permission from the customer

41 / 70

41) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) Random individuals are searched

B) Specific individuals are searched

C) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

D) All individuals is searched

42 / 70

42) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Nervousness

B) Drug use

C) Exposure to carbon monoxide

D) Fear

43 / 70

43) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

B) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

C) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

D) Call an ambulance

44 / 70

44) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Seize the item and deny them to enter

B) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

C) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

D) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

45 / 70

45) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) In the street refuse bin

B) In the broken glass bin

C) In the regular trash container

D) Clinical Waste

46 / 70

46) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

B) They identify those who have been banned.

C) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

D) They can be used by management for marketing

47 / 70

47) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

B) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

C) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

D) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

48 / 70

48) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Record search details in your incident book

B) Carry search alone in a private area

C) Inform your manager

D) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

49 / 70

49) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Direct

B) Hearsay

C) Incidental

D) Forensic

50 / 70

50) The types of searches are:

A) National, Private, Public

B) General, Random, Specific

C) General, Handpicked, Race related

D) Thorough, X-Ray, General

51 / 70

51) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

B) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

C) Could become a victim of a crime

D) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

52 / 70

52) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Photograph customers on entry

B) Search individuals on entry

C) Ban bags at the venue

D) Inform the police of each event

53 / 70

53) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Visitor log

B) Incident report

C) Incident questionnaire

D) Incident log

54 / 70

54) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

B) Call the emergency services

C) Destroy it yourself

D) Inform your supervisor

55 / 70

55) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Trespass, robbery and theft

B) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

C) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

D) Assault, Theft, and Drug

56 / 70

56) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) An offensive weapon

B) A personal weapon

C) A harmful weapon

D) A dangerous weapon

57 / 70

57) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

B) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

C) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

D) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

58 / 70

58) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Pool

B) Chess

C) Darts

D) Roulette

59 / 70

59) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Cannabis

B) Amphetamines

C) Heroin

D) Tranquilisers

60 / 70

60) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

B) An argument between a couple inside the venue

C) A Serious assault outside the venue

D) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

61 / 70

61) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) The race of the individual

B) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

C) The group of friends around an individual

D) Facial hair

62 / 70

62) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

B) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

C) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

D) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

63 / 70

63) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Seal it in a plastic bag

B) Flush it down the toilet

C) Dispose in the general waste bin

D) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

64 / 70

64) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) How many radios are available for use at the premises

B) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

C) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

D) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

65 / 70

65) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Ear defenders

B) Gloves

C) Safety goggles

D) Face shield

66 / 70

66) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Obtain person's permission

B) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

C) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

D) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

67 / 70

67) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Violent behaviour

B) Being monitored by CCTV

C) Approachable customers

D) Understanding customers

68 / 70

68) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Licensing objectives

B) Public safety regulation

C) Licensing federation

D) Venue security measures

69 / 70

69) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

B) Drug dealing

C) Gaming or gambling without a licence

D) Solicitation

70 / 70

70) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Circumstantial

B) Hearsay

C) Forensic

D) Documentary

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Develop a rapport with the customer

B) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

C) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

D) Note down the instructions

2 / 50

2) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) They complain to management

B) Any direction given is followed

C) Your opinion is heard

D) The outcome is successful

3 / 50

3) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Recognition

B) Motivation

C) Humiliation

D) Stimulus

4 / 50

4) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You cannot guarantee victory

B) The customer might bring his friends

C) For the safety of yourself and others

D) You might be fired from your workplace

5 / 50

5) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

B) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

C) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

D) The conflict will remain unresolved

6 / 50

6) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Effective communication

B) Concise communication

C) Persuasive communication

D) Poor communication

7 / 50

7) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being kept waiting

B) Not providing relevant information

C) Being disregarded

D) Being fearful of the consequences

8 / 50

8) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Empathic

B) A spin-off

C) Compromised

D) A win-win

9 / 50

9) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

B) Their hearing tunes into the threat

C) Their thought processes become more logical

D) Their heartbeat decelerates

10 / 50

10) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) might avoid injury

B) Will still do a nice job

C) May get disciplined

D) Will ignore being disciplined

11 / 50

11) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Being rude

B) Fear of retaliation

C) Fighting back

D) Ignoring the legal consequences

12 / 50

12) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

B) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

C) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

D) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

13 / 50

13) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

B) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

C) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

D) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

14 / 50

14) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will continue to perform well

B) May get disciplined

C) Will avoid being disciplined

D) Can ignore injury

15 / 50

15) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Suitable

B) Minimal

C) Reasonable

D) Mandatory

16 / 50

16) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Treated like a valued guest

B) Loses face

C) Shocked

D) Made to feel welcome

17 / 50

17) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to force their way past the employee

B) Hold until the employee moves

C) Try to talk their way out of the situation

D) Tell the manager

18 / 50

18) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

B) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

C) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

D) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

19 / 50

19) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Capable

C) Patronised

D) Assertive

20 / 50

20) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

B) Being assertive

C) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

D) Being threatening

21 / 50

21) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Exert all available force

B) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

C) Kick the customer out without warning

D) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

22 / 50

22) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having strong personal values

B) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

C) Being unsure of what action is taken

D) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

23 / 50

23) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and emotional

B) Irrational and emotional

C) Rational and psychological

D) Rational and social

24 / 50

24) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Begin to use abusive personal language

B) Bully at them and tell jokes

C) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

D) Stand further away from the employee

25 / 50

25) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Patience

B) Assertiveness

C) Frustration

D) Violence

26 / 50

26) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

B) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

C) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

D) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

27 / 50

27) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

B) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

28 / 50

28) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Social barrier

B) Psychological barrier

C) Political barrier

D) Physical barrier

29 / 50

29) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Empowered

C) Motivated

D) Angry

30 / 50

30) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Local Council

B) The Victim Support Scheme

C) The manager

D) The lead security operative

31 / 50

31) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

B) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

C) It minimizes the chances of a risk

D) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

32 / 50

32) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Less

B) Reasonable

C) Mandatory

D) Approachable

33 / 50

33) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) It empowers the customer to take charge

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

34 / 50

34) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To get increase in salary

B) To pick up trends

C) Make a positive impression on your manager

D) To get a promotion

35 / 50

35) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

B) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

C) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

D) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

36 / 50

36) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Various clothes

B) Diverse hair colour

C) Different cultures

D) Different eye colour

37 / 50

37) Empathy means being able to:

A) Ignore someone else's opinion

B) Understand another person’s point of view

C) Encourage another person’s perception

D) Share someone else's opinion

38 / 50

38) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Assertiveness

B) Frustration

C) Awareness

D) Empathy

39 / 50

39) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

B) By criticising the actions of the customer

C) Showing empathy towards the customer

D) Being bossy towards the customer

40 / 50

40) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

D) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

41 / 50

41) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Advising to the customer

B) Speaking to the customer seriously

C) Not listening to the customer

D) Being assertive towards the customer

42 / 50

42) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Victim Support

B) Samaritans

C) Child Line

D) Crime Stoppers

43 / 50

43) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Have your driver's license suspended

B) An argument

C) The customer departing

D) Loss of your employment

44 / 50

44) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Нарру

B) Insulted

C) Appreciated

D) Comfortable

45 / 50

45) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak calmly

B) Speak quickly

C) Speak loudly

D) Speak aggressively

46 / 50

46) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Dodging eye contact

B) gesturing with open palms

C) only paying partial attention to the other person

D) Facing the other person directly

47 / 50

47) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

B) Take one to another room to separate them

C) Force to stop an argument

D) Threaten to call the police

48 / 50

48) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

B) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

C) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

D) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

49 / 50

49) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

B) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

C) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

D) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

50 / 50

50) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

B) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

C) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

D) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Unexpected or increase strength

B) Low temperature

C) Low blood pressure

D) Tranquility

2 / 69

2) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Tactics to keep yourself safe

B) Use of handcuffs or ties

C) Conflict management skills

D) Techniques which isolate the individual

3 / 69

3) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

B) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

C) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

D) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

4 / 69

4) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

B) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

C) Staff should not write anything down

D) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

5 / 69

5) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) An increase in venue insurance costs

B) An increased risk of harm

C) A promotion for all involved

D) A pay increase

6 / 69

6) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) Increase in compensation

B) A rise in venue insurance costs

C) An upgrade for all involved

D) An increased risk of harm

7 / 69

7) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

B) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

C) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

D) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

8 / 69

8) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

B) The person has stolen property hidden on them

C) The persons age, size and weight

D) The person is drunk or on drugs

9 / 69

9) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

B) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

C) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

D) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

10 / 69

10) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

B) Handling the individual independently.

C) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

D) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

11 / 69

11) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Standing restrictive restraint

B) Standing non- restrictive restraint

C) Face down (prone)

D) Face up (supine)

12 / 69

12) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

B) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

C) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

D) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

13 / 69

13) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

B) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

C) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

D) The door supervisor should use communication skills

14 / 69

14) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

B) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

C) Ignore any signs of medical issues

D) Hold them down until they calm down

15 / 69

15) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Showing bizarre behaviour

B) Having a low pulse rate

C) Having a low breathing rate

D) Agreeing to requests

16 / 69

16) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

B) Strength, and safety

C) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

D) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

17 / 69

17) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Paying less

B) Promotion to head door supervisor

C) Enhanced social media presence

D) Civil litigation from the injured party

18 / 69

18) What does the word Static mean?

A) In a defensive state

B) In a state ready to be physical

C) Unchanging

D) In the right state

19 / 69

19) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

B) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

C) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

D) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

20 / 69

20) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

B) May feel threatened by others

C) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

D) May lose interest in the physical intervention

21 / 69

21) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

B) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

C) Encourage secondary control alternatives

D) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

22 / 69

22) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

B) Determine who is accountable for the incident

C) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

D) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

23 / 69

23) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Physical intervention is illegal

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Physical intervention is used before anything else

D) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

24 / 69

24) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) An inability to breathe

B) A lower heart rate

C) A lower body temperature

D) Unrestricted breathing

25 / 69

25) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) Legislation may change

B) All employers ask for it

C) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

D) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

26 / 69

26) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

B) Legislation may change

C) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

D) All employers ask for references

27 / 69

27) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

B) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

C) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

D) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

28 / 69

28) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) Place of the intervention

B) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

C) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

D) Gender identity of the person

29 / 69

29) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

B) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

C) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

D) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

30 / 69

30) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Excessive Sweating

B) Having a regular pulse

C) Being cold and calmly to touch

D) Bleeding from the skin

31 / 69

31) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Whilst the witnesses are still present

B) As soon as practically possible

C) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

D) Within 72 hours of the incident

32 / 69

32) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

B) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

C) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

D) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

33 / 69

33) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

B) It could impair breathing

C) It could impair hearing

D) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

34 / 69

34) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Physical intervention is used before anything else

B) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

C) Physical intervention is illegal

D) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

35 / 69

35) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) Viable safety restraint

B) 3-point restraint

C) Head lock

D) Prone Restraint

36 / 69

36) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Prohibited from entering the venue

B) Taken into custody

C) Forced to leave the venue

D) Exposed to further injury or harm

37 / 69

37) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

B) Defensive skills are responsive

C) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

D) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

38 / 69

38) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) What outfit the subject is wearing

B) The threat posted by the subject

C) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

D) The number of followers the subject has no social media

39 / 69

39) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should return to work immediately

B) Staff should be given support

C) Staff should get a warning

D) Staff should get a pay rise

40 / 69

40) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Guidelines for restraining another person.

B) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

C) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

D) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

41 / 69

41) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) You are more vulnerable on the floor

B) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

C) You should always maintain an authoritative position

D) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

42 / 69

42) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

B) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

C) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

D) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

43 / 69

43) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

B) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

C) When the incident occurred

D) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

44 / 69

44) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) The use of pepper spray

B) Control and restraint

C) The use of a weapon

D) Conflict management

45 / 69

45) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Handcuffs

B) Martial arts

C) Unnecessary force

D) Effective communication

46 / 69

46) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

B) Customer may become impatient

C) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

D) Customer may become easier to deal with

47 / 69

47) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Physical aggression.

B) Handcuffs

C) CCTV

D) Verbal escalation

48 / 69

48) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

B) Hypohydration

C) Mental health issues

D) Hypothermia

49 / 69

49) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) What is the number of attendees

B) That the individual is conscious and breathing

C) A taxi queue

D) The time

50 / 69

50) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

B) Lowered body temperature

C) Positional asphyxia

D) Lowered blood pressure

51 / 69

51) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Promotes safety

B) Is advertised

C) Make more money at the venue

D) Could lose their license

52 / 69

52) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

B) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

C) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

D) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

53 / 69

53) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) Respectable

B) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

C) Reasonable

D) Rational

54 / 69

54) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

B) Chance of being uploaded to social media

C) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

D) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

55 / 69

55) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Advancement of the people concerned

B) Suffering endured by the people involved.

C) Loss of wages of those involved

D) Criminal prosecution of those involved

56 / 69

56) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

B) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

C) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

D) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

57 / 69

57) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Low blood pressure

B) Positional asphyxia

C) Low body temperature

D) Calmness

58 / 69

58) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) Skillset of the subject

B) Skillset of the door supervisor

C) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

D) Method of restraint

59 / 69

59) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Self-inflicted injuries

B) Equipped with weapons

C) Medical distress

D) Law enforcement presence

60 / 69

60) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

B) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

C) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

D) Withdraw/De-escalate

61 / 69

61) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Improvised weapons being carried

B) Medical distress

C) Self-destructive behavior

D) Law enforcement activity

62 / 69

62) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

B) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

C) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

D) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

63 / 69

63) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Put the customer in the recovery position

B) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

C) Call for help

D) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

64 / 69

64) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Get rid of any evidence

B) Safeguard evidence

C) Gather statements from all witnesses

D) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

65 / 69

65) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Violence

B) Use of self-defense weapon

C) Conflict management

D) Control and restraint

66 / 69

66) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Calmly talking to customers

B) Any restraint that impairs breathing

C) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

D) Not using physical restraints

67 / 69

67) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

B) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

C) Decide who requires further training in restraint

D) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

68 / 69

68) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

B) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

C) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

D) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

69 / 69

69) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Tactics to keep yourself safe

B) Use of handcuffs and ties

C) Techniques which isolate the individual

D) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

Quick Links

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SIA Approved Security Training Course

Our Security Services

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Forms & Submissions

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