Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

2 / 99

2) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

B) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

C) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

3 / 99

3) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Alert the appropriate emergency services

B) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

C) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

D) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

4 / 99

4) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

B) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

C) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

D) Engaging the person with professional customer service

5 / 99

5) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

B) Hosting private social events for the community

C) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

D) Increasing entry fees to control access

6 / 99

6) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

B) It increases individual recognition

C) It means fewer security staff are needed

D) It leads to more competition among staff

7 / 99

7) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To provide contact details for medical services

B) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

C) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

D) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

8 / 99

8) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Integrity

B) Indifference

C) Aggression

D) Dishonesty

9 / 99

9) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Immediately evacuate the building

B) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

C) Activate the fire alarm

D) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

10 / 99

10) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

B) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

C) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

D) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

11 / 99

11) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To make personal notes about customers

B) To comply with legal requirements

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To improve the reputation of the venue

12 / 99

12) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

13 / 99

13) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

B) Report the injury to their employer

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

14 / 99

14) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

D) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

15 / 99

15) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

16 / 99

16) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Conducting highly visible patrols

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

17 / 99

17) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Having a clear sense of direction

18 / 99

18) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To review an incident but take no reflective action

B) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

C) To completely overlook the incident and move on

D) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

19 / 99

19) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

B) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

D) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

20 / 99

20) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

B) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

C) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

D) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

21 / 99

21) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Lift the load using the back muscles

B) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

C) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

22 / 99

22) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

B) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

C) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

D) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

23 / 99

23) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

B) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

C) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

D) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

24 / 99

24) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When discussing personal matters outside of work

B) When arranging office furniture

C) When scheduling breaks for security staff

D) When interacting with hostile customers

25 / 99

25) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Are an employee running late for a meeting

B) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

C) Might be conducting suspicious activities

D) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

26 / 99

26) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

B) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

C) To avoid potential liability for future issues

D) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

27 / 99

27) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

B) Separate the victim from the attacker

C) Notify the victim's family before taking action

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

28 / 99

28) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To avoid complaints from individuals

C) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

D) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

29 / 99

29) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking in an aggressive tone

B) Speaking calmly

C) Writing down instructions

D) Being confrontational

30 / 99

30) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A heart attack

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A software update on a laptop

31 / 99

31) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Removing the fuel

B) Adding more heat

C) Removing the carbon dioxide

D) Adding more oxygen

32 / 99

32) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Call their superior before taking any actions

B) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

C) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

D) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

33 / 99

33) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) Verbal warning from their employer

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Civil or criminal prosecution

34 / 99

34) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

B) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

C) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

D) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

35 / 99

35) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Taking pictures of a tourist group

C) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

D) Having a discussion with a family member

36 / 99

36) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Offering physical assistance

B) Clear and concise communication

C) Removing them from the premises

D) Providing immediate medical attention

37 / 99

37) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

38 / 99

38) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

B) To avoid contact with any key personnel

C) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

39 / 99

39) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

B) List the names of staff present

C) Recount only the parts that seem important

D) State the total number of visitors

40 / 99

40) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial support to security contractors

B) Training security staff for private companies

C) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

D) Regulating the security industry through licensing

41 / 99

41) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) An accident report

B) A duty sheet

C) A search register

D) A visitor log

42 / 99

42) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A security operative speaking to a customer

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A facial expression showing confusion

D) A notice posted on a door

43 / 99

43) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

C) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

D) Check the building for any missing people

44 / 99

44) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

B) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

C) Giving the customer all of the information at once

D) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

45 / 99

45) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Social media platforms

B) Colleagues and management

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Online gaming communities

46 / 99

46) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Writing a polite email

C) Smiling or frowning

D) Sending a text message

47 / 99

47) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

D) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

48 / 99

48) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

B) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

C) To avoid supporting each individual customer

D) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

49 / 99

49) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) Parking offenses

B) A noise complaint

C) An assault

D) Littering

50 / 99

50) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To make the communication sound more complex

51 / 99

51) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

B) Photograph it and then throw it away

C) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

D) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

52 / 99

52) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

B) Taking part in group activities with friends

C) Directing security to a distressed individual

D) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

53 / 99

53) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Increased exposure to potential violence

B) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

C) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

D) Reduced access to basic health support

54 / 99

54) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A colleague having an asthma attack

B) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

C) A package left unattended

D) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

55 / 99

55) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Instructions from colleagues

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) Personal preferences for handling situations

D) SIA standards and the company's established values

56 / 99

56) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

B) A manager requesting information

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A colleague asking for help with a task

57 / 99

57) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Deny there's any problem

B) Ignore their complaints directly

C) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

D) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

58 / 99

58) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It encourages competition among colleagues

B) It enables individuals to work independently

C) It increases individual accountability

D) It promotes communication and collaboration

59 / 99

59) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

60 / 99

60) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Optimized focus on work projects

B) Enhanced team dynamics

C) Developing negative coping mechanisms

D) Increased motivation to perform better

61 / 99

61) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Promote high standards within the industry

B) Guarantee low prices for security services

C) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

D) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

62 / 99

62) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

63 / 99

63) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

C) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

D) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

64 / 99

64) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Freezing and surrendering

B) Searching for a crowded area

C) Calmly walking away

D) Fight or flight

65 / 99

65) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

B) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

C) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

D) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

66 / 99

66) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is unlikely but still possible

B) When it is almost certain to happen

C) When it is possible but not likely

D) When it is highly improbable

67 / 99

67) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Managing public relations for private companies

68 / 99

68) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Common illnesses among employees

B) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

C) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

D) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

69 / 99

69) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is possible but unlikely

B) An attack is likely

C) An attack is highly likely

D) An attack is extremely unlikely

70 / 99

70) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

C) Directly confront the individual

D) Contact the transport's customer service team

71 / 99

71) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Dress code policies

B) Potential promotions within the company

C) Employee social gatherings outside work

D) Work-related personal projects

72 / 99

72) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

B) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

C) Recording shift instructions and break durations

D) Documenting found items

73 / 99

73) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Consistent injuries

B) Decrease in social interactions

C) Positive self-esteem

D) Changes in behavior

74 / 99

74) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

B) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

C) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

D) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

75 / 99

75) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of fire exits

C) The location of first aid kits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

76 / 99

76) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

B) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

C) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

D) It never captures sensitive information

77 / 99

77) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

B) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

C) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

D) Something that might cause occasional distractions

78 / 99

78) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

79 / 99

79) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Hacking into a company's computer systems

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Release of dangerous substances

D) Use of firearms

80 / 99

80) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual who appears disoriented

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

81 / 99

81) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Using hand gestures

B) Reading a text message aloud

C) Speaking clearly to someone

D) Making a phone call

82 / 99

82) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Reducing opportunities for crimes

D) Limiting communication between security teams

83 / 99

83) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

C) It removes the need to contact emergency services

D) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

84 / 99

84) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

B) To gather information about the offense

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

85 / 99

85) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

B) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

D) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

86 / 99

86) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

87 / 99

87) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

D) May result in increased stress for the security operative

88 / 99

88) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

B) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

C) To submit complaints against security personnel

D) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

89 / 99

89) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can detain individuals until they confess

B) Have no special powers of arrest

C) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

D) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

90 / 99

90) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

B) Local councils handle all the cases

C) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

91 / 99

91) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

B) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To show authority and control over the situation

92 / 99

92) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Planning out the route to the venue

B) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

C) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

D) Reviewing old criminal offenses

93 / 99

93) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

B) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

C) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

D) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

94 / 99

94) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

B) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

95 / 99

95) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To improve employee productivity and performance

B) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To estimate costs for safety equipment

D) To limit employee movement around the premises

96 / 99

96) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Vehicle immobilizer

B) Personal trainer

C) Customer support agent

D) Maintenance person

97 / 99

97) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for public awareness

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Accessed only by authorized personnel

D) Deleted after one month

98 / 99

98) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Depriving someone of their freedom

B) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

C) Guiding someone to a safe place

D) Informing someone of their legal rights

99 / 99

99) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

C) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

Your score is

The average score is 65%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A manager requesting information

B) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

C) A colleague seeking help with a task

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

2 / 92

2) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Murder

B) Breach of contract

C) Assault

D) Burglary

3 / 92

3) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Complete

B) Conclusion

C) Clear

D) Concise

4 / 92

4) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime occurs

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

D) Call the transport's customer service team

5 / 92

5) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Employee social gatherings outside of work

C) Dress code policies

D) Work-related personal projects

6 / 92

6) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

B) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

C) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

D) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

7 / 92

7) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Asking security staff for directions

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

8 / 92

8) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

B) To avoid attending required safety training.

C) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

D) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

9 / 92

9) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking action

B) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

D) Separate the victim from the attacker

10 / 92

10) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) High-visibility patrols

D) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

11 / 92

11) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform a manager and record the incident.

B) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

C) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

D) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

12 / 92

12) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Participation in team-building activities

B) Allocation of lunch breaks

C) Compensation and employee benefits

D) Access to company resources

13 / 92

13) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Writing a polite email

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Sending a text message

14 / 92

14) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

15 / 92

15) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears disoriented

16 / 92

16) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Recruiting new security officers

B) A security benefits scheme for employees

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) The approved contractor scheme

17 / 92

17) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

B) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

C) Improving team morale

D) Preparing to use physical restraints

18 / 92

18) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A fire

B) A power outage

C) A water leak

D) A gas leak

19 / 92

19) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) The state brings charges against individuals

B) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

C) Private individuals initiate cases in court

D) Local councils manage all cases

20 / 92

20) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

B) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

C) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

D) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

21 / 92

21) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

B) A red circle with a line through it

C) A blue square with a cross

D) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

22 / 92

22) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 300 meters.

B) Approximately 100 meters.

C) Approximately 200 meters.

D) Approximately 400 meters.

23 / 92

23) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The use of firearms.

B) The release of hazardous substances.

C) Theft of sensitive information.

D) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

24 / 92

24) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of common colds among employees

B) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

C) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

D) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

25 / 92

25) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

26 / 92

26) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

27 / 92

27) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A heart attack

D) A software update on a laptop

28 / 92

28) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Instructions from colleagues

B) Personal preferences in handling situations

C) Customer wishes and demands

D) SIA standards and the company's values

29 / 92

29) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) A verbal warning from their employer

30 / 92

30) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

B) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

C) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

D) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

31 / 92

31) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When managing office furniture layout

B) When dealing with aggressive customers

C) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

D) When planning breaks for security staff

32 / 92

32) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Engaging in group activities with friends

B) Offering aid to people in distress

C) Closely observing and tracking individuals

D) Guiding security towards a distressed person

33 / 92

33) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

B) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

C) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

D) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

34 / 92

34) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

D) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

35 / 92

35) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

D) Have no special powers of arrest

36 / 92

36) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

B) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

C) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

D) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

37 / 92

37) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

B) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

C) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

D) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

38 / 92

38) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

B) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

C) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

D) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

39 / 92

39) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

B) Denying that there is any issue

C) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

D) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

40 / 92

40) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It fosters communication and cooperation

B) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

C) It allows individuals to work in isolation

D) It increases individual responsibility

41 / 92

41) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Being argumentative.

B) Using an aggressive tone.

C) Speaking in a calm manner.

D) Providing written instructions.

42 / 92

42) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Good team-building activities

B) Financial bonuses

C) New opportunities for equipment

D) Effective practices

43 / 92

43) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

B) It ensures no one will challenge actions

C) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

D) It prevents involvement from local authorities

44 / 92

44) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

B) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

C) To inform the media about the arrest

D) To immediately leave the scene

45 / 92

45) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

B) Sound the alarm

C) Stop and search for the fire's source

D) Evacuate the building immediately

46 / 92

46) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Wet chemical

B) CO2 Gas

C) Water

D) Foam

47 / 92

47) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving petrol or paint

B) A fire involving wood or rubber

C) A fire involving butane gas

D) A fire involving hot cooking oils

48 / 92

48) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Sound the alarm

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

49 / 92

49) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Water, heat, and oxygen

B) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

C) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

D) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

50 / 92

50) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of all staff present

B) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

C) State the total number of visitors

D) Recount only the seemingly important parts

51 / 92

51) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To reduce security visibility to the public

B) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

D) To avoid any staff interactions

52 / 92

52) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for issues

B) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

C) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

D) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

53 / 92

53) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Wait until the last minute to arrive

B) Avoid communication with their legal representative

C) Review their statement and the relevant case details

D) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

54 / 92

54) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

B) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

55 / 92

55) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

B) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

C) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

56 / 92

56) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) Citizens Advice Bureau

C) The local community center

D) Samaritans

57 / 92

57) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

B) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

C) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

D) To question the suspect about the offense

58 / 92

58) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Reviewed by any staff member

B) Shared on social media for awareness

C) Deleted after one month

D) Accessible only by authorized personnel

59 / 92

59) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class B

B) Class F

C) Class A

D) Class D

60 / 92

60) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of hazardous materials

D) The location of fire extinguishers

61 / 92

61) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Nearly certain

B) Unlikely but conceivable

C) Possible but unlikely

D) Highly improbable

62 / 92

62) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

B) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

C) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

D) A child playing outdoors with friends

63 / 92

63) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

C) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

D) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

64 / 92

64) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire blanket

B) Sprinkler system

C) Water

D) Fire hose

65 / 92

65) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Manned Guarding

B) Private investigator

C) Delivery driver

D) Office receptionist

66 / 92

66) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Ensuring security personnel leave first

B) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Blocking access to all staircases

67 / 92

67) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To review an incident without taking reflective action

C) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

D) To help them avoid discussing the incident

68 / 92

68) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It can only be used outdoors

B) It can only be used indoors

C) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

D) It cannot record any criminal activities

69 / 92

69) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

B) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

C) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

D) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

70 / 92

70) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

B) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

C) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

71 / 92

71) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

B) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

C) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

D) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

72 / 92

72) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It reduces the need for training and oversight

C) It increases risks for both staff and the public

D) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

73 / 92

73) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

B) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

C) Any previous self-protection training they had

D) What they observed and their names

74 / 92

74) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

B) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

C) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

D) Reducing communication between team members

75 / 92

75) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Attending an event with a group of friends

D) Having a clear sense of direction

76 / 92

76) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Preserved and handed over to the police

B) Disposed of and logged

C) Photographed and then discarded

D) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

77 / 92

77) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

B) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

C) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

D) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

78 / 92

78) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

B) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

C) Limited access to basic health support.

D) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

79 / 92

79) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Assisting a lost individual

B) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

C) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

D) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

80 / 92

80) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break times

B) Documenting visitor logs

C) Documenting found items

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

81 / 92

81) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Detain the individual

B) Escort the individual off the premises

C) Immediately search the individual

D) Proceed to question the individual

82 / 92

82) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Using local support organizations

B) Booking a taxi for the individual

C) Requesting assistance from the police

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

83 / 92

83) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

C) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

D) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

84 / 92

84) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Increasing entry fees for access control

B) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

C) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

D) Organizing private gatherings within the community

85 / 92

85) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Check the building for any missing people

B) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

D) Proceed to the assembly point

86 / 92

86) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

C) People freezing in place due to shock

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

87 / 92

87) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

B) Investigating the cause before taking action.

C) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

D) Contacting emergency services.

88 / 92

88) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

B) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

D) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

89 / 92

89) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to call emergency services

B) It eliminates the need for other security measures

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

90 / 92

90) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

B) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

C) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

D) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

91 / 92

91) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

B) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

C) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

92 / 92

92) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Providing legal representation to businesses

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

D) Managing public relations for private companies

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

D) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

2 / 64

2) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

B) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

C) People freezing in place due to shock

D) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

3 / 64

3) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) The approved contractor scheme

B) A security benefits scheme for employees

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) Recruiting new security officers

4 / 64

4) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

B) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

5 / 64

5) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

C) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

D) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

6 / 64

6) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

B) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

D) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

7 / 64

7) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

B) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

C) might be conducting suspicious activities

D) are an employee running late for a meeting

8 / 64

8) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is likely

B) An attack is possible but unlikely

C) An attack is highly likely

D) An attack is extremely unlikely

9 / 64

9) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Removing the carbon dioxide

B) Removing the fuel

C) Adding more heat

D) Adding more oxygen

10 / 64

10) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To take away someone's liberty

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To escort someone to safety

D) To question someone about a crime

11 / 64

11) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

B) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

12 / 64

12) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

B) To limit employee movement around the premises

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

13 / 64

13) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A security operative speaking to a customer

B) A notice posted on a door

C) A facial expression showing confusion

D) Listening to a colleague's opinion

14 / 64

14) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Physical assistance

B) Clear communication

C) Removal from the premises

D) Medical attention

15 / 64

15) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Water

B) Wet chemical

C) CO2 Gas

D) Foam

16 / 64

16) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Developing negative coping mechanisms

B) Increased motivation to perform better

C) Enhanced team dynamics

D) Optimised focus on work projects

17 / 64

17) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Reviewing old criminal offences

18 / 64

18) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Using hand gestures

C) Making a phone call

D) Reading a text message aloud

19 / 64

19) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 400 metres

B) 100 metres

C) 200 metres

D) 300 metres

20 / 64

20) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with the law

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To improve the reputation of the venue

21 / 64

21) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Consistent injuries

B) Positive self-esteem

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Changes in behaviour

22 / 64

22) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

B) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

C) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

D) To avoid contact with any key personnel

23 / 64

23) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Having a discussion with a family member

B) Taking pictures of a tourist group

C) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

D) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

24 / 64

24) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Personal trainer

B) Customer support agent

C) Vehicle immobiliser

D) Maintenance person

25 / 64

25) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Dishonesty

B) Integrity

C) Indifference

D) Aggression

26 / 64

26) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

27 / 64

27) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

28 / 64

28) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

B) Licensing is optional for all security companies

C) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

D) Licensing is only required for large security firms

29 / 64

29) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

B) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

C) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

D) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

30 / 64

30) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

31 / 64

31) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) An accident report

B) A duty sheet

C) A visitor log

D) A search register

32 / 64

32) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It decreases the need for training and supervision

B) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

C) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

D) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

33 / 64

33) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

B) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

C) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

D) Lift the load using the back muscles

34 / 64

34) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

B) Moving people into a secure area in a building

C) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

D) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

35 / 64

35) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

D) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

36 / 64

36) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

37 / 64

37) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

B) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

C) Engaging the person with professional customer service

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

38 / 64

38) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

B) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

C) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

D) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

39 / 64

39) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Requesting assistance from the police

B) Using local support organisations

C) Booking a taxi for the individual

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

40 / 64

40) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A blue square with a cross

B) A white circle with a black cross

C) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

D) A red circle with a line through it

41 / 64

41) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Help vulnerable people evacuate

D) Check the fire extinguishers

42 / 64

42) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

B) reduce security visibility to the public

C) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

D) avoid any staff interactions

43 / 64

43) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Use of company resources

B) Pay and benefits

C) Lunch breaks

D) Team-building activities

44 / 64

44) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) littering

B) an assault

C) parking offences

D) a police complaint

45 / 64

45) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

B) A child playing in a field with friends

C) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

D) A child being closely supervised by parents

46 / 64

46) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

B) To show authority and control over the situation

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

47 / 64

47) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

B) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

C) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

D) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

48 / 64

48) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Citizens Advice Bureau

B) Samaritans

C) The local community centre

D) Trade unions

49 / 64

49) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

B) To gather information about the offence

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

50 / 64

50) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

C) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

D) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

51 / 64

51) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Writing down passwords in a notebook

D) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

52 / 64

52) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

53 / 64

53) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Only serious contagious diseases

B) Any disease not related to the workplace

C) Any disease related to the workplace

D) Cutting an individual to an employee

54 / 64

54) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

B) guarantee low prices for security services

C) promote high standards within the industry

D) limit the number of security providers within the industry

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Burglary

B) Breach of contract

C) Assault

D) Murder

56 / 64

56) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) A package left unattended

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

57 / 64

57) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

D) may result in increased stress for the security operative

58 / 64

58) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To make the communication sound more complex

59 / 64

59) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

B) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

C) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

D) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

60 / 64

60) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

B) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

C) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

D) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

61 / 64

61) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Reducing opportunities for crimes

C) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

D) Promoting competition among local businesses

62 / 64

62) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) recognise areas for improvement

B) better understand how to escalate situations

C) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

D) boost team morale

63 / 64

63) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Follow the company's procedures and policies

B) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

C) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

D) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

64 / 64

64) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Training employees in fire safety procedures

D) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many radios are available for use at the premises

C) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

D) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

2 / 70

2) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

B) Follow the local seize and secure policy

C) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

D) Make all venues aware of the incident

3 / 70

3) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Decrease customer numbers

B) Increase customer numbers

C) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

D) Increase the likelihood of conflict

4 / 70

4) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Writing the admission policy

B) Ensuring the premises remains full

C) Advertising venue theme nights

D) Promoting house rules

5 / 70

5) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) A searchlight

B) A plastic detector

C) A search wand

D) An archway metal detector (AMD)

6 / 70

6) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They identify those who have been banned

B) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

C) They help to record all customers’ faces

D) They can be used by management for marketing

7 / 70

7) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

B) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

C) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

D) Keep customers entertained while waiting

8 / 70

8) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

B) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

C) Document of those responsible in your notebook

D) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

9 / 70

9) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) The group of friends around an individual

B) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

C) Facial hair

D) The race of the individual

10 / 70

10) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A searchlight

B) An archway metal detector (AMD)

C) A search wand

D) A plastic detector

11 / 70

11) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) promote customer to interact with each other

B) minimize the bar queue time

C) Show what a great venue you have

D) Improve customers’ safety

12 / 70

12) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) How many radios are available for use at the premises

B) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

C) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

D) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

13 / 70

13) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

B) Power of closure

C) Confiscate musical equipment

D) Set new maximum occupancy limits

14 / 70

14) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) It may help to reduce potential conflict

B) It helps customers to plan their evening

C) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

D) They may not like the drinks served inside

15 / 70

15) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) Drunk people outside the venue

B) Ejection of a customer

C) An incident occurring inside the venue

D) Ejection of a customer

16 / 70

16) The types of searches are:

A) General, Random, Specific

B) National, Private, Public

C) General, Handpicked, Race related

D) Thorough, X-Ray, General

17 / 70

17) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Get permission from the customer

B) Inform management that a search is in progress

C) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

D) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

18 / 70

18) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Being aware

B) Being intoxicated

C) Drug use

D) Drug dealing

19 / 70

19) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

B) Call an ambulance

C) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

D) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

20 / 70

20) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Search anyway

B) Reject their entry

C) Notify the manager

D) Ring to the police

21 / 70

21) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

B) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

C) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

D) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

22 / 70

22) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Destroy it yourself

B) Inform your supervisor

C) Call the emergency services

D) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

23 / 70

23) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) After consulting with supervisors

B) Only in block capital letters

C) Whilst witnessing an incident

D) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

24 / 70

24) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Understanding customers

B) Being monitored by CCTV

C) Approachable customers

D) Violent behaviour

25 / 70

25) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A group of females chatting with a group of males

B) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

C) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

D) A female taking selfies with a male

26 / 70

26) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) The day-to-day operation of the premises

B) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

C) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

D) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

27 / 70

27) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class B

B) Class D

C) Class A

D) Class C

28 / 70

28) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Loud music

B) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

C) Consumption of food

D) Use of toilets

29 / 70

29) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) When barriers are moved by customers

B) When the numbers exceed 100

C) When a problem is reported by someone

D) At all times to ensure safe queuing

30 / 70

30) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) inqure a member of the bar staff

B) Ask the venue’s manager

C) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

D) explore on the internet

31 / 70

31) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

B) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

C) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

D) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

32 / 70

32) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Face shield

B) Ear defenders

C) Safety goggles

D) Gloves

33 / 70

33) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

B) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

C) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

D) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

34 / 70

34) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

B) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

C) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

D) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

35 / 70

35) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Amphetamines

B) Heroin

C) Tranquilisers

D) Cannabis

36 / 70

36) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

B) 20-year prison sentence

C) 12-year prison sentence and fine

D) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

37 / 70

37) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Unpredictable behavior

B) Dilated pupils

C) Falling sleep

D) Powder traces under the nose

38 / 70

38) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Could become a victim of a crime

B) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

C) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

D) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

39 / 70

39) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

B) Solicitation

C) Gaming or gambling without a licence

D) Drug dealing

40 / 70

40) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

B) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

C) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

D) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

41 / 70

41) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Visitor log

B) Incident questionnaire

C) Incident log

D) Incident report

42 / 70

42) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Trespass, robbery and theft

B) Assault, Theft, and Drug

C) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

D) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

43 / 70

43) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) Social Media outlets

B) National Threat Level information

C) By local MPs

D) Local Radio

44 / 70

44) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They identify those who have been banned.

B) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

C) They can be used by management for marketing

D) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

45 / 70

45) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

B) When the venue has a large queue

C) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

D) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

46 / 70

46) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Fear

B) Drug use

C) Nervousness

D) Exposure to carbon monoxide

47 / 70

47) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Roulette

B) Chess

C) Pool

D) Darts

48 / 70

48) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

B) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

C) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

D) Help prevent complaints from local residents

49 / 70

49) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Flush it down the toilet

B) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

C) Seal it in a plastic bag

D) Dispose in the general waste bin

50 / 70

50) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A customer

B) A door supervisor

C) The manager

D) A member of staff

51 / 70

51) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Trespass

B) Rape

C) Common assault

D) Grievous bodily harm

52 / 70

52) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Circumstantial

B) Hearsay

C) Documentary

D) Forensic

53 / 70

53) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Contact the emergency service

B) Contact the venue’s head office

C) Record the incident using a mobile phone

D) Contact the licensing officer

54 / 70

54) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

B) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

C) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

D) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

55 / 70

55) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Offensive behavior

B) Unlawful entry

C) Criminal damage

D) Trespass

56 / 70

56) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

B) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

C) A Serious assault outside the venue

D) An argument between a couple inside the venue

57 / 70

57) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) In the broken glass bin

B) In the street refuse bin

C) In the regular trash container

D) Clinical Waste

58 / 70

58) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

B) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

C) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

D) Seize the item and deny them to enter

59 / 70

59) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) A harmful weapon

B) An offensive weapon

C) A dangerous weapon

D) A personal weapon

60 / 70

60) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Theft

B) Burglary

C) Loot

D) Sabotage

61 / 70

61) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Licensing federation

B) Public safety regulation

C) Licensing objectives

D) Venue security measures

62 / 70

62) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

B) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

C) Monitoring drink sales performance

D) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

63 / 70

63) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

B) Obtain person's permission

C) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

D) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

64 / 70

64) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) All individuals is searched

B) Random individuals are searched

C) Specific individuals are searched

D) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

65 / 70

65) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Make way for VIPs

B) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

C) Withhold information from customers

D) Investigate each customer in detail.

66 / 70

66) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Inform your manager

B) Carry search alone in a private area

C) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

D) Record search details in your incident book

67 / 70

67) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Common Assault

B) Grievous Bodily Harm

C) Actual Bodily Harm

D) Grand Bodily Harm

68 / 70

68) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Direct

B) Forensic

C) Hearsay

D) Incidental

69 / 70

69) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) Ensuring admission policy is followed

B) The revenue of the business you work for

C) Enforcing parking fines

D) Escorting customers home

70 / 70

70) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Photograph customers on entry

B) Ban bags at the venue

C) Inform the police of each event

D) Search individuals on entry

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Stimulus

B) Humiliation

C) Motivation

D) Recognition

2 / 50

2) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) They complain to management

B) Any direction given is followed

C) The outcome is successful

D) Your opinion is heard

3 / 50

3) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Empathic

B) Compromised

C) A spin-off

D) A win-win

4 / 50

4) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

B) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

C) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

D) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

5 / 50

5) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Samaritans

B) Child Line

C) Victim Support

D) Crime Stoppers

6 / 50

6) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

B) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

C) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

D) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

7 / 50

7) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Threaten to call the police

B) Take one to another room to separate them

C) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

D) Force to stop an argument

8 / 50

8) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

B) Being threatening

C) Being assertive

D) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

9 / 50

9) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

B) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

C) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

D) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

10 / 50

10) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

B) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

C) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

D) It minimizes the chances of a risk

11 / 50

11) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to talk their way out of the situation

B) Try to force their way past the employee

C) Tell the manager

D) Hold until the employee moves

12 / 50

12) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Can ignore injury

B) May get disciplined

C) Will continue to perform well

D) Will avoid being disciplined

13 / 50

13) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Shocked

B) Loses face

C) Made to feel welcome

D) Treated like a valued guest

14 / 50

14) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their hearing tunes into the threat

B) Their heartbeat decelerates

C) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

D) Their thought processes become more logical

15 / 50

15) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Being assertive towards the customer

B) Speaking to the customer seriously

C) Not listening to the customer

D) Advising to the customer

16 / 50

16) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

B) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

C) Being unsure of what action is taken

D) Having strong personal values

17 / 50

17) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

B) Showing empathy towards the customer

C) Being bossy towards the customer

D) By criticising the actions of the customer

18 / 50

18) Empathy means being able to:

A) Share someone else's opinion

B) Understand another person’s point of view

C) Ignore someone else's opinion

D) Encourage another person’s perception

19 / 50

19) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

B) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

C) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

D) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

20 / 50

20) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

B) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

C) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

D) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

21 / 50

21) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

B) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

C) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

D) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

22 / 50

22) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

B) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

C) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

D) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

23 / 50

23) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fear of retaliation

B) Ignoring the legal consequences

C) Being rude

D) Fighting back

24 / 50

24) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Awareness

B) Frustration

C) Assertiveness

D) Empathy

25 / 50

25) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Dodging eye contact

B) only paying partial attention to the other person

C) gesturing with open palms

D) Facing the other person directly

26 / 50

26) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

B) Kick the customer out without warning

C) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

D) Exert all available force

27 / 50

27) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Empowered

C) Angry

D) Optimistic

28 / 50

28) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Effective communication

B) Poor communication

C) Concise communication

D) Persuasive communication

29 / 50

29) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being fearful of the consequences

B) Not providing relevant information

C) Being kept waiting

D) Being disregarded

30 / 50

30) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) It empowers the customer to take charge

B) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

31 / 50

31) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Assertive

B) Capable

C) Patronised

D) Motivated

32 / 50

32) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Political barrier

B) Psychological barrier

C) Physical barrier

D) Social barrier

33 / 50

33) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and social

B) Rational and emotional

C) Rational and psychological

D) Irrational and emotional

34 / 50

34) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Нарру

B) Insulted

C) Appreciated

D) Comfortable

35 / 50

35) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak loudly

B) Speak aggressively

C) Speak calmly

D) Speak quickly

36 / 50

36) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) The conflict will remain unresolved

B) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

C) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

D) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

37 / 50

37) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

38 / 50

38) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Bully at them and tell jokes

B) Stand further away from the employee

C) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

D) Begin to use abusive personal language

39 / 50

39) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To pick up trends

B) To get a promotion

C) Make a positive impression on your manager

D) To get increase in salary

40 / 50

40) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Mandatory

B) Minimal

C) Reasonable

D) Suitable

41 / 50

41) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

B) Develop a rapport with the customer

C) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

D) Note down the instructions

42 / 50

42) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Diverse hair colour

B) Various clothes

C) Different cultures

D) Different eye colour

43 / 50

43) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Victim Support Scheme

B) The manager

C) The lead security operative

D) The Local Council

44 / 50

44) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Patience

B) Frustration

C) Violence

D) Assertiveness

45 / 50

45) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) Will ignore being disciplined

B) might avoid injury

C) Will still do a nice job

D) May get disciplined

46 / 50

46) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You cannot guarantee victory

B) You might be fired from your workplace

C) For the safety of yourself and others

D) The customer might bring his friends

47 / 50

47) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

B) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

C) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

D) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

48 / 50

48) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Less

B) Mandatory

C) Approachable

D) Reasonable

49 / 50

49) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Loss of your employment

B) An argument

C) The customer departing

D) Have your driver's license suspended

50 / 50

50) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

B) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

C) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

D) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Put the customer in the recovery position

B) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

C) Call for help

D) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

2 / 69

2) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

B) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

C) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

D) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

3 / 69

3) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Low temperature

B) Low blood pressure

C) Unexpected or increase strength

D) Tranquility

4 / 69

4) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Prohibited from entering the venue

B) Exposed to further injury or harm

C) Taken into custody

D) Forced to leave the venue

5 / 69

5) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) Gender identity of the person

B) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

C) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

D) Place of the intervention

6 / 69

6) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

B) Strength, and safety

C) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

D) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

7 / 69

7) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) May lose interest in the physical intervention

B) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

C) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

D) May feel threatened by others

8 / 69

8) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Advancement of the people concerned

B) Loss of wages of those involved

C) Suffering endured by the people involved.

D) Criminal prosecution of those involved

9 / 69

9) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

B) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

C) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

D) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

10 / 69

10) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) An increase in venue insurance costs

B) An increased risk of harm

C) A promotion for all involved

D) A pay increase

11 / 69

11) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

B) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

C) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

D) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

12 / 69

12) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

B) Physical intervention is illegal

C) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

D) Physical intervention is used before anything else

13 / 69

13) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Withdraw/De-escalate

B) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

C) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

D) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

14 / 69

14) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Being cold and calmly to touch

B) Bleeding from the skin

C) Excessive Sweating

D) Having a regular pulse

15 / 69

15) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

B) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

C) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

D) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

16 / 69

16) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Violence

B) Conflict management

C) Use of self-defense weapon

D) Control and restraint

17 / 69

17) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) An inability to breathe

B) A lower body temperature

C) Unrestricted breathing

D) A lower heart rate

18 / 69

18) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

B) The person has stolen property hidden on them

C) The persons age, size and weight

D) The person is drunk or on drugs

19 / 69

19) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Equipped with weapons

B) Medical distress

C) Law enforcement presence

D) Self-inflicted injuries

20 / 69

20) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) The time

B) A taxi queue

C) What is the number of attendees

D) That the individual is conscious and breathing

21 / 69

21) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

B) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

C) Guidelines for restraining another person.

D) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

22 / 69

22) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Customer may become impatient

B) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

C) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

D) Customer may become easier to deal with

23 / 69

23) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Calmly talking to customers

B) Not using physical restraints

C) Any restraint that impairs breathing

D) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

24 / 69

24) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

B) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

C) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

D) Staff should not write anything down

25 / 69

25) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) The use of a weapon

B) Conflict management

C) The use of pepper spray

D) Control and restraint

26 / 69

26) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Whilst the witnesses are still present

B) As soon as practically possible

C) Within 72 hours of the incident

D) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

27 / 69

27) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Safeguard evidence

B) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

C) Get rid of any evidence

D) Gather statements from all witnesses

28 / 69

28) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisor should use communication skills

B) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

C) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

D) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

29 / 69

29) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) Viable safety restraint

B) Head lock

C) Prone Restraint

D) 3-point restraint

30 / 69

30) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Use of handcuffs or ties

B) Techniques which isolate the individual

C) Tactics to keep yourself safe

D) Conflict management skills

31 / 69

31) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

B) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

C) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

D) Chance of being uploaded to social media

32 / 69

32) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

B) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

C) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

D) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

33 / 69

33) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

B) Legislation may change

C) All employers ask for references

D) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

34 / 69

34) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) Defensive skills are responsive

B) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

C) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

D) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

35 / 69

35) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) Reasonable

B) Respectable

C) Rational

D) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

36 / 69

36) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Face up (supine)

B) Face down (prone)

C) Standing non- restrictive restraint

D) Standing restrictive restraint

37 / 69

37) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

B) You are more vulnerable on the floor

C) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

D) You should always maintain an authoritative position

38 / 69

38) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Handcuffs

B) Effective communication

C) Unnecessary force

D) Martial arts

39 / 69

39) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

B) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

C) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

D) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

40 / 69

40) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Lowered body temperature

B) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

C) Positional asphyxia

D) Lowered blood pressure

41 / 69

41) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

B) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

C) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

D) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

42 / 69

42) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Techniques which isolate the individual

B) Use of handcuffs and ties

C) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

D) Tactics to keep yourself safe

43 / 69

43) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

B) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

C) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

D) Decide who requires further training in restraint

44 / 69

44) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

B) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

C) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

D) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

45 / 69

45) What does the word Static mean?

A) In a state ready to be physical

B) Unchanging

C) In a defensive state

D) In the right state

46 / 69

46) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

B) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

C) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

D) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

47 / 69

47) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Determine who is accountable for the incident

B) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

C) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

D) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

48 / 69

48) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

B) When the incident occurred

C) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

D) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

49 / 69

49) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Handling the individual independently.

B) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

C) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

D) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

50 / 69

50) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) A rise in venue insurance costs

B) An increased risk of harm

C) Increase in compensation

D) An upgrade for all involved

51 / 69

51) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could impair breathing

B) It could impair hearing

C) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

D) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

52 / 69

52) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

B) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

C) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

D) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

53 / 69

53) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should return to work immediately

B) Staff should get a warning

C) Staff should be given support

D) Staff should get a pay rise

54 / 69

54) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

B) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

C) Encourage secondary control alternatives

D) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

55 / 69

55) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

B) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

C) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

D) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

56 / 69

56) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Enhanced social media presence

B) Promotion to head door supervisor

C) Paying less

D) Civil litigation from the injured party

57 / 69

57) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) Skillset of the subject

B) Skillset of the door supervisor

C) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

D) Method of restraint

58 / 69

58) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Law enforcement activity

B) Self-destructive behavior

C) Improvised weapons being carried

D) Medical distress

59 / 69

59) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

B) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

C) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

D) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

60 / 69

60) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Agreeing to requests

B) Showing bizarre behaviour

C) Having a low breathing rate

D) Having a low pulse rate

61 / 69

61) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) All employers ask for it

B) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

C) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

D) Legislation may change

62 / 69

62) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Physical aggression.

B) Handcuffs

C) Verbal escalation

D) CCTV

63 / 69

63) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Could lose their license

B) Make more money at the venue

C) Is advertised

D) Promotes safety

64 / 69

64) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) Ignore any signs of medical issues

B) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

C) Hold them down until they calm down

D) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

65 / 69

65) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Physical intervention is illegal

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

D) Physical intervention is used before anything else

66 / 69

66) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

B) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

C) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

D) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

67 / 69

67) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Positional asphyxia

B) Low blood pressure

C) Low body temperature

D) Calmness

68 / 69

68) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Hypothermia

B) Mental health issues

C) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

D) Hypohydration

69 / 69

69) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) The number of followers the subject has no social media

B) The threat posted by the subject

C) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

D) What outfit the subject is wearing

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

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SIA Approved Security Training Course

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