Door Supervisor Mock Test

All our mock tests are password protected to ensure a secure and controlled testing environment. If you have not received the access details for the mock tests, please reach out to Nepbridge or your dedicated tutor for assistance.

We want to emphasise that participating in mock tests can greatly benefit for your exam preparation. These practice tests are designed to help you become familiar with the format, structure, and types of questions you may encounter. By engaging in mock tests, you can assess your knowledge, identify areas for improvement and enhance your overall exam performance.

We are here to support you throughout your testing journey. Please contact us if you have any confusion.

Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Training security staff for private companies

B) Offering financial support to security contractors

C) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

D) Regulating the security industry through licensing

2 / 99

2) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It encourages competition among colleagues

B) It enables individuals to work independently

C) It increases individual accountability

D) It promotes communication and collaboration

3 / 99

3) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

C) Lift the load using the back muscles

D) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

4 / 99

4) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Integrity

C) Indifference

D) Dishonesty

5 / 99

5) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To make the communication sound more complex

6 / 99

6) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

D) Requesting assistance with directions

7 / 99

7) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Increased exposure to potential violence

B) Reduced access to basic health support

C) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

D) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

8 / 99

8) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

B) To submit complaints against security personnel

C) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

D) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

9 / 99

9) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To avoid supporting each individual customer

B) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

C) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

D) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

10 / 99

10) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Having a discussion with a family member

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

11 / 99

11) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A heart attack

C) A software update on a laptop

D) A slip on a wet floor

12 / 99

12) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Accessed only by authorized personnel

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Shared on social media for public awareness

D) Deleted after one month

13 / 99

13) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Taking part in group activities with friends

B) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

C) Directing security to a distressed individual

D) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

14 / 99

14) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

B) Licensing is optional for all security companies

C) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

D) Licensing is only required for large security firms

15 / 99

15) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking action

B) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

D) Separate the victim from the attacker

16 / 99

16) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) Littering

B) A noise complaint

C) An assault

D) Parking offenses

17 / 99

17) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Fight or flight

B) Searching for a crowded area

C) Calmly walking away

D) Freezing and surrendering

18 / 99

18) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A duty sheet

B) An accident report

C) A visitor log

D) A search register

19 / 99

19) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

B) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

C) Ignore their complaints directly

D) Deny there's any problem

20 / 99

20) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

B) To avoid contact with any key personnel

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

21 / 99

21) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Removing the fuel

B) Removing the carbon dioxide

C) Adding more heat

D) Adding more oxygen

22 / 99

22) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

C) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

D) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

23 / 99

23) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Guarantee low prices for security services

B) Promote high standards within the industry

C) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

D) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

24 / 99

24) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

B) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Report the injury to their employer

25 / 99

25) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with legal requirements

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To improve the reputation of the venue

26 / 99

26) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) May result in increased stress for the security operative

B) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

C) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

D) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

27 / 99

27) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

B) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

C) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

D) It never captures sensitive information

28 / 99

28) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

B) Something that might cause occasional distractions

C) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

D) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

29 / 99

29) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

B) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

C) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

D) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

30 / 99

30) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Writing down instructions

B) Speaking calmly

C) Being confrontational

D) Speaking in an aggressive tone

31 / 99

31) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

B) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

32 / 99

32) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

33 / 99

33) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

34 / 99

34) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Increased motivation to perform better

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Enhanced team dynamics

D) Optimized focus on work projects

35 / 99

35) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When arranging office furniture

B) When scheduling breaks for security staff

C) When interacting with hostile customers

D) When discussing personal matters outside of work

36 / 99

36) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Reviewing old criminal offenses

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

37 / 99

37) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can detain individuals until they confess

B) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

C) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

D) Have no special powers of arrest

38 / 99

38) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

B) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

C) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

D) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

39 / 99

39) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Release of dangerous substances

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Use of firearms

D) Hacking into a company's computer systems

40 / 99

40) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

B) Activate the fire alarm

C) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

D) Immediately evacuate the building

41 / 99

41) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Providing immediate medical attention

B) Removing them from the premises

C) Offering physical assistance

D) Clear and concise communication

42 / 99

42) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

D) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

43 / 99

43) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

D) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

44 / 99

44) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to contact emergency services

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

45 / 99

45) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

B) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

C) Local councils handle all the cases

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

46 / 99

46) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

B) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

47 / 99

47) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

B) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To show authority and control over the situation

48 / 99

48) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

D) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

49 / 99

49) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

B) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

C) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

D) Alert the appropriate emergency services

50 / 99

50) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

51 / 99

51) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

52 / 99

52) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Writing a polite email

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Smiling or frowning

53 / 99

53) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Promoting competition among local businesses

B) Limiting communication between security teams

C) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

54 / 99

54) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It increases individual recognition

B) It leads to more competition among staff

C) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

D) It means fewer security staff are needed

55 / 99

55) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

B) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

C) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

56 / 99

56) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

D) An individual who appears disoriented

57 / 99

57) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

B) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

C) Call their superior before taking any actions

D) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

58 / 99

58) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of fire exits

C) The location of first aid kits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

59 / 99

59) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Online gaming communities

B) Colleagues and management

C) Social media platforms

D) Entertainment websites and apps

60 / 99

60) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Dress code policies

D) Employee social gatherings outside work

61 / 99

61) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To estimate costs for safety equipment

B) To limit employee movement around the premises

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

62 / 99

62) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

B) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

C) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

D) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

63 / 99

63) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is possible but unlikely

B) An attack is highly likely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is likely

64 / 99

64) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Customer support agent

B) Personal trainer

C) Vehicle immobilizer

D) Maintenance person

65 / 99

65) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Verbal warning from their employer

66 / 99

66) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

D) Check the building for any missing people

67 / 99

67) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Giving the customer all of the information at once

B) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

C) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

D) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

68 / 99

68) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

B) Contact the transport's customer service team

C) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

D) Directly confront the individual

69 / 99

69) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To gather information about the offense

C) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

D) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

70 / 99

70) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

B) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

C) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

D) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

71 / 99

71) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Having a clear sense of direction

72 / 99

72) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

B) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

C) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

D) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

73 / 99

73) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

B) Engaging the person with professional customer service

C) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

D) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

74 / 99

74) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Recount only the parts that seem important

B) List the names of staff present

C) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

D) State the total number of visitors

75 / 99

75) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is almost certain to happen

B) When it is possible but not likely

C) When it is highly improbable

D) When it is unlikely but still possible

76 / 99

76) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Hosting private social events for the community

B) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

C) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

D) Increasing entry fees to control access

77 / 99

77) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

B) To completely overlook the incident and move on

C) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

D) To review an incident but take no reflective action

78 / 99

78) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Personal preferences for handling situations

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) SIA standards and the company's established values

D) Instructions from colleagues

79 / 99

79) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) A package left unattended

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

80 / 99

80) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

C) To provide contact details for medical services

D) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

81 / 99

81) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Reading a text message aloud

B) Using hand gestures

C) Making a phone call

D) Speaking clearly to someone

82 / 99

82) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

83 / 99

83) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

B) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

C) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

D) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

84 / 99

84) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

B) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

C) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

D) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

85 / 99

85) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for future issues

B) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

C) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

D) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

86 / 99

86) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

C) Conducting highly visible patrols

D) Preventing interactions with the public

87 / 99

87) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

C) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

D) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

88 / 99

88) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Changes in behavior

B) Positive self-esteem

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Consistent injuries

89 / 99

89) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A manager requesting information

D) A colleague asking for help with a task

90 / 99

90) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Are an employee running late for a meeting

B) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

C) Might be conducting suspicious activities

D) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

91 / 99

91) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

B) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

C) Common illnesses among employees

D) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

92 / 99

92) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

B) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

93 / 99

93) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

C) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

94 / 99

94) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

D) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

95 / 99

95) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

B) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

C) To avoid complaints from individuals

D) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

96 / 99

96) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break durations

B) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

C) Documenting found items

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

97 / 99

97) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

B) Photograph it and then throw it away

C) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

D) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

98 / 99

98) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A facial expression showing confusion

B) A security operative speaking to a customer

C) A notice posted on a door

D) Listening to a colleague's opinion

99 / 99

99) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Guiding someone to a safe place

B) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

C) Depriving someone of their freedom

D) Informing someone of their legal rights

Your score is

The average score is 65%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Training security personnel for private firms.

C) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

D) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

2 / 92

2) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) CO2 Gas

B) Foam

C) Water

D) Wet chemical

3 / 92

3) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

B) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

4 / 92

4) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A fire

B) A water leak

C) A power outage

D) A gas leak

5 / 92

5) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

B) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

C) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

D) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

6 / 92

6) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Blocking access to all staircases

B) Locking all entrances and exits

C) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

D) Ensuring security personnel leave first

7 / 92

7) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

B) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

8 / 92

8) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

B) To immediately leave the scene

C) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

D) To inform the media about the arrest

9 / 92

9) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

B) To avoid any staff interactions

C) To reduce security visibility to the public

D) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

10 / 92

10) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

B) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

C) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

D) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

11 / 92

11) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

B) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

C) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

12 / 92

12) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

C) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

D) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

13 / 92

13) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Only report it if a crime occurs

D) Call the transport's customer service team

14 / 92

14) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It can only be used indoors

B) It can only be used outdoors

C) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

D) It cannot record any criminal activities

15 / 92

15) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red circle with a line through it

B) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

C) A blue square with a cross

D) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

16 / 92

16) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

17 / 92

17) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

B) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

C) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

D) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

18 / 92

18) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class F

B) Class B

C) Class A

D) Class D

19 / 92

19) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Burglary

B) Murder

C) Breach of contract

D) Assault

20 / 92

20) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Private investigator

B) Office receptionist

C) Manned Guarding

D) Delivery driver

21 / 92

21) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

B) To avoid potential liability for issues

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

22 / 92

22) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Complete

B) Clear

C) Concise

D) Conclusion

23 / 92

23) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It allows individuals to work in isolation

B) It fosters communication and cooperation

C) It increases individual responsibility

D) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

24 / 92

24) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

C) To review an incident without taking reflective action

D) To help them avoid discussing the incident

25 / 92

25) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) New opportunities for equipment

B) Financial bonuses

C) Good team-building activities

D) Effective practices

26 / 92

26) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

B) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

C) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

D) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

27 / 92

27) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

B) Any previous self-protection training they had

C) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

D) What they observed and their names

28 / 92

28) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

B) Wait until the last minute to arrive

C) Review their statement and the relevant case details

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

29 / 92

29) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Engaging in group activities with friends

B) Guiding security towards a distressed person

C) Offering aid to people in distress

D) Closely observing and tracking individuals

30 / 92

30) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Limited access to basic health support.

B) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

C) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

D) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

31 / 92

31) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

B) A manager requesting information

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A colleague seeking help with a task

32 / 92

32) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

B) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

C) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

D) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

33 / 92

33) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) A security benefits scheme for employees

D) The approved contractor scheme

34 / 92

34) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 100 meters.

B) Approximately 300 meters.

C) Approximately 200 meters.

D) Approximately 400 meters.

35 / 92

35) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving petrol or paint

B) A fire involving butane gas

C) A fire involving hot cooking oils

D) A fire involving wood or rubber

36 / 92

36) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Stop and search for the fire's source

B) Sound the alarm

C) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

D) Evacuate the building immediately

37 / 92

37) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) The state brings charges against individuals

B) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

C) Local councils manage all cases

D) Private individuals initiate cases in court

38 / 92

38) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for awareness

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Deleted after one month

D) Accessible only by authorized personnel

39 / 92

39) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

B) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

C) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

D) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

40 / 92

40) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

B) It increases risks for both staff and the public

C) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

D) It reduces the need for training and oversight

41 / 92

41) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

B) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

C) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

D) Inform a manager and record the incident.

42 / 92

42) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

43 / 92

43) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

B) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

C) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

D) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

44 / 92

44) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A slip on a wet floor

B) A heart attack

C) A software update on a laptop

D) An epileptic seizure

45 / 92

45) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

46 / 92

46) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

C) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

D) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

47 / 92

47) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Writing a polite email

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Smiling or frowning

D) Sending a text message

48 / 92

48) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Escort the individual off the premises

B) Immediately search the individual

C) Detain the individual

D) Proceed to question the individual

49 / 92

49) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

B) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

C) It ensures no one will challenge actions

D) It prevents involvement from local authorities

50 / 92

50) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

C) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

D) People freezing in place due to shock

51 / 92

51) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Photographed and then discarded

B) Preserved and handed over to the police

C) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

D) Disposed of and logged

52 / 92

52) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Compensation and employee benefits

B) Access to company resources

C) Participation in team-building activities

D) Allocation of lunch breaks

53 / 92

53) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

B) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

C) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

54 / 92

54) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of all staff present

B) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

C) State the total number of visitors

D) Recount only the seemingly important parts

55 / 92

55) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Booking a taxi for the individual

B) Using local support organizations

C) Requesting assistance from the police

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

56 / 92

56) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Providing written instructions.

B) Using an aggressive tone.

C) Being argumentative.

D) Speaking in a calm manner.

57 / 92

57) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Water

B) Fire blanket

C) Fire hose

D) Sprinkler system

58 / 92

58) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

C) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

D) To question the suspect about the offense

59 / 92

59) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

B) A child playing outdoors with friends

C) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

D) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

60 / 92

60) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

61 / 92

61) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

B) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

C) Denying that there is any issue

D) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

62 / 92

62) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It eliminates the need for other security measures

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It removes the need to call emergency services

63 / 92

63) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

C) Managing public relations for private companies

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

64 / 92

64) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

B) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

C) Reducing communication between team members

D) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

65 / 92

65) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Recording shift instructions and break times

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting visitor logs

66 / 92

66) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

B) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

C) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

D) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

67 / 92

67) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Organizing private gatherings within the community

B) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

C) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

D) Increasing entry fees for access control

68 / 92

68) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The use of firearms.

B) Theft of sensitive information.

C) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

D) The release of hazardous substances.

69 / 92

69) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Dress code policies

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Employee social gatherings outside of work

70 / 92

70) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Nearly certain

B) Highly improbable

C) Unlikely but conceivable

D) Possible but unlikely

71 / 92

71) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

B) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

72 / 92

72) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

B) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

C) Cases of common colds among employees

D) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

73 / 92

73) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When planning breaks for security staff

C) When managing office furniture layout

D) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

74 / 92

74) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

D) Asking security staff for directions

75 / 92

75) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

D) Have no special powers of arrest

76 / 92

76) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) High-visibility patrols

B) Ignoring minor incidents

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

77 / 92

77) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

B) To avoid attending required safety training.

C) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

D) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

78 / 92

78) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

B) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

C) Proceed to the assembly point

D) Check the building for any missing people

79 / 92

79) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

C) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

D) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

80 / 92

80) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) A verbal warning from their employer

81 / 92

81) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

B) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Notify the victim's family before taking action

82 / 92

82) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

B) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

C) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

D) Water, heat, and oxygen

83 / 92

83) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Instructions from colleagues

B) Personal preferences in handling situations

C) SIA standards and the company's values

D) Customer wishes and demands

84 / 92

84) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

B) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

C) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

D) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

85 / 92

85) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Help vulnerable people evacuate

B) Sound the alarm

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Check the fire extinguishers

86 / 92

86) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Samaritans

B) Trade unions

C) The local community center

D) Citizens Advice Bureau

87 / 92

87) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

B) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

C) Preparing to use physical restraints

D) Improving team morale

88 / 92

88) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

B) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

C) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

D) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

89 / 92

89) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

B) Assisting a lost individual

C) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

D) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

90 / 92

90) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of hazardous materials

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of first aid kits

91 / 92

91) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) An individual who appears disoriented

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

92 / 92

92) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

B) Investigating the cause before taking action.

C) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

D) Contacting emergency services.

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is extremely unlikely

B) An attack is likely

C) An attack is possible but unlikely

D) An attack is highly likely

2 / 64

2) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Sound the alarm

C) Help vulnerable people evacuate

D) Check the fire extinguishers

3 / 64

3) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To gather information about the offence

B) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

4 / 64

4) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

B) It decreases the need for training and supervision

C) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

D) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

5 / 64

5) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) A security benefits scheme for employees

D) The approved contractor scheme

6 / 64

6) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Reviewing old criminal offences

B) Planning out the route to the venue

C) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

7 / 64

7) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

8 / 64

8) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

C) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

D) People freezing in place due to shock

9 / 64

9) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

B) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

10 / 64

10) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

B) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

C) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

D) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

11 / 64

11) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

C) Promoting competition among local businesses

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

12 / 64

12) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To make the communication sound more complex

13 / 64

13) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) A package left unattended

14 / 64

14) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

B) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

D) To avoid contact with any key personnel

15 / 64

15) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A notice posted on a door

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A facial expression showing confusion

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

16 / 64

16) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

C) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

D) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

17 / 64

17) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

C) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

D) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

18 / 64

18) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

B) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

C) To avoid complaints from individuals

D) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

19 / 64

19) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

C) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

D) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

20 / 64

20) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

B) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

C) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

D) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

21 / 64

21) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Removing the carbon dioxide

B) Removing the fuel

C) Adding more heat

D) Adding more oxygen

22 / 64

22) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Customer support agent

B) Personal trainer

C) Vehicle immobiliser

D) Maintenance person

23 / 64

23) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) reduce security visibility to the public

B) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) avoid any staff interactions

D) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

24 / 64

24) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Breach of contract

B) Assault

C) Murder

D) Burglary

25 / 64

25) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

B) Requesting assistance with directions

C) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

D) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

26 / 64

26) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

B) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To show authority and control over the situation

27 / 64

27) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

B) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

C) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

D) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

28 / 64

28) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) CO2 Gas

B) Water

C) Wet chemical

D) Foam

29 / 64

29) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) promote high standards within the industry

C) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) guarantee low prices for security services

30 / 64

30) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child playing in a field with friends

B) A child being closely supervised by parents

C) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

D) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

31 / 64

31) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Moving people into a secure area in a building

B) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

C) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

D) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

32 / 64

32) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To improve the reputation of the venue

B) To comply with the law

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To make personal notes about customers

33 / 64

33) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Integrity

B) Aggression

C) Indifference

D) Dishonesty

34 / 64

34) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) The local community centre

B) Trade unions

C) Citizens Advice Bureau

D) Samaritans

35 / 64

35) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

D) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

36 / 64

36) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Developing negative coping mechanisms

B) Enhanced team dynamics

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Optimised focus on work projects

37 / 64

37) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A duty sheet

B) A visitor log

C) An accident report

D) A search register

38 / 64

38) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

B) Booking a taxi for the individual

C) Using local support organisations

D) Requesting assistance from the police

39 / 64

39) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

40 / 64

40) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

B) Engaging the person with professional customer service

C) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

D) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

41 / 64

41) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Only document it if they require medical treatment

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

42 / 64

42) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

C) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

D) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

43 / 64

43) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

B) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

C) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

D) may result in increased stress for the security operative

44 / 64

44) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To question someone about a crime

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To take away someone's liberty

D) To escort someone to safety

45 / 64

45) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Clear communication

B) Physical assistance

C) Medical attention

D) Removal from the premises

46 / 64

46) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Having a discussion with a family member

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

47 / 64

47) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

B) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

C) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

D) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

48 / 64

48) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To estimate costs for safety equipment

B) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To limit employee movement around the premises

49 / 64

49) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Any disease related to the workplace

B) Any disease not related to the workplace

C) Only serious contagious diseases

D) Cutting an individual to an employee

50 / 64

50) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) parking offences

B) littering

C) a police complaint

D) an assault

51 / 64

51) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

B) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

C) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

52 / 64

52) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

B) Follow the company's procedures and policies

C) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

D) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

53 / 64

53) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Decrease in social interactions

B) Changes in behaviour

C) Consistent injuries

D) Positive self-esteem

54 / 64

54) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

B) A white circle with a black cross

C) A red circle with a line through it

D) A blue square with a cross

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Giving the customer all of the information at once

B) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

C) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

D) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

56 / 64

56) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

57 / 64

57) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

B) are an employee running late for a meeting

C) might be conducting suspicious activities

D) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

58 / 64

58) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) better understand how to escalate situations

B) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

C) boost team morale

D) recognise areas for improvement

59 / 64

59) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Use of company resources

B) Team-building activities

C) Pay and benefits

D) Lunch breaks

60 / 64

60) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Making a phone call

B) Using hand gestures

C) Speaking clearly to someone

D) Reading a text message aloud

61 / 64

61) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

C) Lift the load using the back muscles

D) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

62 / 64

62) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 400 metres

B) 200 metres

C) 100 metres

D) 300 metres

63 / 64

63) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

B) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

C) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

64 / 64

64) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

B) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

C) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

D) Try to administer first aid without training

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

B) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

C) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

D) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

2 / 70

2) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

B) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

C) Could become a victim of a crime

D) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

3 / 70

3) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Drug dealing

B) Being aware

C) Being intoxicated

D) Drug use

4 / 70

4) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Chess

B) Roulette

C) Pool

D) Darts

5 / 70

5) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) All individuals is searched

B) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

C) Random individuals are searched

D) Specific individuals are searched

6 / 70

6) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) The day-to-day operation of the premises

B) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

C) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

D) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

7 / 70

7) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

B) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

C) An argument between a couple inside the venue

D) A Serious assault outside the venue

8 / 70

8) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Solicitation

B) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

C) Gaming or gambling without a licence

D) Drug dealing

9 / 70

9) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Reject their entry

B) Search anyway

C) Notify the manager

D) Ring to the police

10 / 70

10) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

B) When the venue has a large queue

C) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

D) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

11 / 70

11) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Contact the venue’s head office

B) Record the incident using a mobile phone

C) Contact the licensing officer

D) Contact the emergency service

12 / 70

12) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

B) Seize the item and deny them to enter

C) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

D) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

13 / 70

13) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Theft

B) Sabotage

C) Burglary

D) Loot

14 / 70

14) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

B) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

C) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

D) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

15 / 70

15) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Ensuring the premises remains full

B) Promoting house rules

C) Advertising venue theme nights

D) Writing the admission policy

16 / 70

16) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Get permission from the customer

B) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

C) Inform management that a search is in progress

D) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

17 / 70

17) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Venue security measures

B) Licensing federation

C) Licensing objectives

D) Public safety regulation

18 / 70

18) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Incident report

B) Visitor log

C) Incident log

D) Incident questionnaire

19 / 70

19) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A member of staff

B) A door supervisor

C) A customer

D) The manager

20 / 70

20) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

B) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

C) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

D) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

21 / 70

21) The types of searches are:

A) Thorough, X-Ray, General

B) General, Handpicked, Race related

C) National, Private, Public

D) General, Random, Specific

22 / 70

22) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

B) Trespass, robbery and theft

C) Assault, Theft, and Drug

D) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

23 / 70

23) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Photograph customers on entry

B) Inform the police of each event

C) Ban bags at the venue

D) Search individuals on entry

24 / 70

24) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Destroy it yourself

B) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

C) Inform your supervisor

D) Call the emergency services

25 / 70

25) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Hearsay

B) Documentary

C) Forensic

D) Circumstantial

26 / 70

26) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Decrease customer numbers

B) Increase customer numbers

C) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

D) Increase the likelihood of conflict

27 / 70

27) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) At all times to ensure safe queuing

B) When a problem is reported by someone

C) When barriers are moved by customers

D) When the numbers exceed 100

28 / 70

28) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Confiscate musical equipment

B) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

C) Power of closure

D) Set new maximum occupancy limits

29 / 70

29) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) minimize the bar queue time

B) Improve customers’ safety

C) Show what a great venue you have

D) promote customer to interact with each other

30 / 70

30) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) An offensive weapon

B) A dangerous weapon

C) A harmful weapon

D) A personal weapon

31 / 70

31) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Gloves

B) Safety goggles

C) Face shield

D) Ear defenders

32 / 70

32) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Criminal damage

B) Unlawful entry

C) Trespass

D) Offensive behavior

33 / 70

33) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

B) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

C) Keep customers entertained while waiting

D) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

34 / 70

34) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

B) Help prevent complaints from local residents

C) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

D) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

35 / 70

35) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

B) Carry search alone in a private area

C) Record search details in your incident book

D) Inform your manager

36 / 70

36) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Document of those responsible in your notebook

B) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

C) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

D) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

37 / 70

37) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Direct

B) Incidental

C) Forensic

D) Hearsay

38 / 70

38) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Make all venues aware of the incident

B) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

C) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

D) Follow the local seize and secure policy

39 / 70

39) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

B) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

C) How many radios are available for use at the premises

D) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

40 / 70

40) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

B) Only in block capital letters

C) After consulting with supervisors

D) Whilst witnessing an incident

41 / 70

41) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Exposure to carbon monoxide

B) Nervousness

C) Fear

D) Drug use

42 / 70

42) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

B) How many radios are available for use at the premises

C) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

D) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

43 / 70

43) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class C

B) Class D

C) Class B

D) Class A

44 / 70

44) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) Local Radio

B) Social Media outlets

C) By local MPs

D) National Threat Level information

45 / 70

45) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Cannabis

B) Amphetamines

C) Tranquilisers

D) Heroin

46 / 70

46) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Understanding customers

B) Being monitored by CCTV

C) Approachable customers

D) Violent behaviour

47 / 70

47) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Seal it in a plastic bag

B) Dispose in the general waste bin

C) Flush it down the toilet

D) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

48 / 70

48) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Common assault

B) Trespass

C) Grievous bodily harm

D) Rape

49 / 70

49) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Consumption of food

B) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

C) Use of toilets

D) Loud music

50 / 70

50) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They identify those who have been banned.

B) They can be used by management for marketing

C) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

D) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

51 / 70

51) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) The group of friends around an individual

B) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

C) The race of the individual

D) Facial hair

52 / 70

52) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

B) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

C) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

D) Monitoring drink sales performance

53 / 70

53) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A female taking selfies with a male

B) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

C) A group of females chatting with a group of males

D) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

54 / 70

54) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

B) Ask the venue’s manager

C) explore on the internet

D) inqure a member of the bar staff

55 / 70

55) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Call an ambulance

B) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

C) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

D) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

56 / 70

56) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) An archway metal detector (AMD)

B) A searchlight

C) A search wand

D) A plastic detector

57 / 70

57) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) An archway metal detector (AMD)

B) A search wand

C) A searchlight

D) A plastic detector

58 / 70

58) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

B) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

C) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

D) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

59 / 70

59) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

B) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

C) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

D) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

60 / 70

60) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

B) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

C) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

D) Obtain person's permission

61 / 70

61) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) In the regular trash container

B) In the broken glass bin

C) In the street refuse bin

D) Clinical Waste

62 / 70

62) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

B) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

C) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

D) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

63 / 70

63) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Investigate each customer in detail.

B) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

C) Make way for VIPs

D) Withhold information from customers

64 / 70

64) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) Escorting customers home

B) Enforcing parking fines

C) The revenue of the business you work for

D) Ensuring admission policy is followed

65 / 70

65) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) It helps customers to plan their evening

B) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

C) It may help to reduce potential conflict

D) They may not like the drinks served inside

66 / 70

66) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 20-year prison sentence

B) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

C) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

D) 12-year prison sentence and fine

67 / 70

67) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They help to record all customers’ faces

B) They identify those who have been banned

C) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

D) They can be used by management for marketing

68 / 70

68) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Powder traces under the nose

B) Unpredictable behavior

C) Falling sleep

D) Dilated pupils

69 / 70

69) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Grand Bodily Harm

B) Actual Bodily Harm

C) Grievous Bodily Harm

D) Common Assault

70 / 70

70) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) An incident occurring inside the venue

B) Ejection of a customer

C) Drunk people outside the venue

D) Ejection of a customer

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To get a promotion

B) Make a positive impression on your manager

C) To get increase in salary

D) To pick up trends

2 / 50

2) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

B) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

D) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

3 / 50

3) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Victim Support Scheme

B) The lead security operative

C) The manager

D) The Local Council

4 / 50

4) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Have your driver's license suspended

B) Loss of your employment

C) The customer departing

D) An argument

5 / 50

5) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Reasonable

B) Minimal

C) Mandatory

D) Suitable

6 / 50

6) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

B) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

C) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

D) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

7 / 50

7) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Effective communication

B) Poor communication

C) Concise communication

D) Persuasive communication

8 / 50

8) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

B) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

C) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

D) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

9 / 50

9) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Various clothes

B) Different eye colour

C) Different cultures

D) Diverse hair colour

10 / 50

10) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

B) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

C) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

D) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

11 / 50

11) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

B) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

C) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

D) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

12 / 50

12) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) Any direction given is followed

B) Your opinion is heard

C) The outcome is successful

D) They complain to management

13 / 50

13) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Made to feel welcome

B) Loses face

C) Shocked

D) Treated like a valued guest

14 / 50

14) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

B) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

C) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

D) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

15 / 50

15) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

B) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

C) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

D) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

16 / 50

16) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) Will ignore being disciplined

B) May get disciplined

C) Will still do a nice job

D) might avoid injury

17 / 50

17) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Insulted

B) Нарру

C) Appreciated

D) Comfortable

18 / 50

18) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Threaten to call the police

B) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

C) Take one to another room to separate them

D) Force to stop an argument

19 / 50

19) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

B) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

C) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

D) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

20 / 50

20) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Showing empathy towards the customer

B) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

C) By criticising the actions of the customer

D) Being bossy towards the customer

21 / 50

21) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having strong personal values

B) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

C) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

D) Being unsure of what action is taken

22 / 50

22) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to force their way past the employee

B) Tell the manager

C) Hold until the employee moves

D) Try to talk their way out of the situation

23 / 50

23) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

B) Exert all available force

C) Kick the customer out without warning

D) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

24 / 50

24) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Compromised

B) A win-win

C) Empathic

D) A spin-off

25 / 50

25) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Stand further away from the employee

B) Begin to use abusive personal language

C) Bully at them and tell jokes

D) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

26 / 50

26) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

B) Being assertive

C) Being threatening

D) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

27 / 50

27) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fear of retaliation

B) Fighting back

C) Ignoring the legal consequences

D) Being rude

28 / 50

28) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Can ignore injury

B) Will avoid being disciplined

C) May get disciplined

D) Will continue to perform well

29 / 50

29) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

C) The conflict will remain unresolved

D) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

30 / 50

30) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

B) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

C) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

D) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

31 / 50

31) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) For the safety of yourself and others

B) You might be fired from your workplace

C) You cannot guarantee victory

D) The customer might bring his friends

32 / 50

32) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being fearful of the consequences

B) Not providing relevant information

C) Being disregarded

D) Being kept waiting

33 / 50

33) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Recognition

B) Stimulus

C) Humiliation

D) Motivation

34 / 50

34) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and social

B) Irrational and emotional

C) Rational and psychological

D) Rational and emotional

35 / 50

35) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their thought processes become more logical

B) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

C) Their heartbeat decelerates

D) Their hearing tunes into the threat

36 / 50

36) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Assertiveness

B) Patience

C) Violence

D) Frustration

37 / 50

37) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

B) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

C) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

D) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

38 / 50

38) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Capable

B) Patronised

C) Motivated

D) Assertive

39 / 50

39) Empathy means being able to:

A) Ignore someone else's opinion

B) Encourage another person’s perception

C) Understand another person’s point of view

D) Share someone else's opinion

40 / 50

40) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It minimizes the chances of a risk

B) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

C) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

D) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

41 / 50

41) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

D) It empowers the customer to take charge

42 / 50

42) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Empathy

B) Frustration

C) Assertiveness

D) Awareness

43 / 50

43) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Reasonable

B) Less

C) Mandatory

D) Approachable

44 / 50

44) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) only paying partial attention to the other person

B) Dodging eye contact

C) Facing the other person directly

D) gesturing with open palms

45 / 50

45) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak calmly

B) Speak loudly

C) Speak quickly

D) Speak aggressively

46 / 50

46) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Crime Stoppers

B) Victim Support

C) Child Line

D) Samaritans

47 / 50

47) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Physical barrier

B) Social barrier

C) Political barrier

D) Psychological barrier

48 / 50

48) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Empowered

C) Motivated

D) Angry

49 / 50

49) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

B) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

C) Note down the instructions

D) Develop a rapport with the customer

50 / 50

50) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Advising to the customer

B) Speaking to the customer seriously

C) Not listening to the customer

D) Being assertive towards the customer

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

B) Ignore any signs of medical issues

C) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

D) Hold them down until they calm down

2 / 69

2) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Put the customer in the recovery position

B) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

C) Call for help

D) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

3 / 69

3) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

B) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

C) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

D) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

4 / 69

4) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) Control and restraint

B) The use of pepper spray

C) The use of a weapon

D) Conflict management

5 / 69

5) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

B) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

C) Defensive skills are responsive

D) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

6 / 69

6) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person is drunk or on drugs

B) The persons age, size and weight

C) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

D) The person has stolen property hidden on them

7 / 69

7) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) Reasonable

B) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

C) Respectable

D) Rational

8 / 69

8) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

B) It could impair breathing

C) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

D) It could impair hearing

9 / 69

9) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

B) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

C) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

D) Chance of being uploaded to social media

10 / 69

10) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisor should use communication skills

B) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

C) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

D) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

11 / 69

11) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

B) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

C) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

D) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

12 / 69

12) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) The number of followers the subject has no social media

B) What outfit the subject is wearing

C) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

D) The threat posted by the subject

13 / 69

13) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

B) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

C) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

D) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

14 / 69

14) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Mental health issues

B) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

C) Hypohydration

D) Hypothermia

15 / 69

15) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

B) All employers ask for references

C) Legislation may change

D) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

16 / 69

16) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Positional asphyxia

B) Calmness

C) Low blood pressure

D) Low body temperature

17 / 69

17) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Having a regular pulse

B) Being cold and calmly to touch

C) Bleeding from the skin

D) Excessive Sweating

18 / 69

18) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

B) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

C) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

D) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

19 / 69

19) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

B) Customer may become easier to deal with

C) Customer may become impatient

D) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

20 / 69

20) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

B) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

C) Withdraw/De-escalate

D) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

21 / 69

21) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

B) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

C) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

D) Guidelines for restraining another person.

22 / 69

22) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Self-destructive behavior

B) Law enforcement activity

C) Improvised weapons being carried

D) Medical distress

23 / 69

23) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) An increase in venue insurance costs

B) A promotion for all involved

C) An increased risk of harm

D) A pay increase

24 / 69

24) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Physical intervention is used before anything else

B) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

C) Physical intervention is illegal

D) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

25 / 69

25) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Handcuffs

B) Verbal escalation

C) Physical aggression.

D) CCTV

26 / 69

26) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Having a low breathing rate

B) Showing bizarre behaviour

C) Having a low pulse rate

D) Agreeing to requests

27 / 69

27) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Calmly talking to customers

B) Not using physical restraints

C) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

D) Any restraint that impairs breathing

28 / 69

28) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) A lower body temperature

B) Unrestricted breathing

C) An inability to breathe

D) A lower heart rate

29 / 69

29) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

B) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

C) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

D) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

30 / 69

30) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

B) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

C) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

D) Staff should not write anything down

31 / 69

31) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Make more money at the venue

B) Promotes safety

C) Could lose their license

D) Is advertised

32 / 69

32) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

B) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

C) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

D) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

33 / 69

33) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Forced to leave the venue

B) Taken into custody

C) Prohibited from entering the venue

D) Exposed to further injury or harm

34 / 69

34) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Get rid of any evidence

B) Gather statements from all witnesses

C) Safeguard evidence

D) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

35 / 69

35) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

B) Legislation may change

C) All employers ask for it

D) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

36 / 69

36) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Lowered blood pressure

B) Lowered body temperature

C) Positional asphyxia

D) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

37 / 69

37) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Paying less

B) Enhanced social media presence

C) Promotion to head door supervisor

D) Civil litigation from the injured party

38 / 69

38) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should get a warning

B) Staff should get a pay rise

C) Staff should return to work immediately

D) Staff should be given support

39 / 69

39) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

B) Strength, and safety

C) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

D) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

40 / 69

40) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

B) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

C) Decide who requires further training in restraint

D) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

41 / 69

41) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) Method of restraint

B) Skillset of the subject

C) Skillset of the door supervisor

D) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

42 / 69

42) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

B) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

C) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

D) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

43 / 69

43) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) You should always maintain an authoritative position

B) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

C) You are more vulnerable on the floor

D) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

44 / 69

44) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) Viable safety restraint

B) Prone Restraint

C) Head lock

D) 3-point restraint

45 / 69

45) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

B) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

C) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

D) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

46 / 69

46) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) What is the number of attendees

B) A taxi queue

C) That the individual is conscious and breathing

D) The time

47 / 69

47) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Suffering endured by the people involved.

B) Criminal prosecution of those involved

C) Advancement of the people concerned

D) Loss of wages of those involved

48 / 69

48) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

B) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

C) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

D) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

49 / 69

49) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

B) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

C) Physical intervention is used before anything else

D) Physical intervention is illegal

50 / 69

50) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Standing non- restrictive restraint

B) Face down (prone)

C) Face up (supine)

D) Standing restrictive restraint

51 / 69

51) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Effective communication

B) Unnecessary force

C) Handcuffs

D) Martial arts

52 / 69

52) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

B) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

C) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

D) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

53 / 69

53) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Equipped with weapons

B) Self-inflicted injuries

C) Law enforcement presence

D) Medical distress

54 / 69

54) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

B) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

C) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

D) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

55 / 69

55) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Techniques which isolate the individual

B) Conflict management skills

C) Tactics to keep yourself safe

D) Use of handcuffs or ties

56 / 69

56) What does the word Static mean?

A) In the right state

B) In a state ready to be physical

C) In a defensive state

D) Unchanging

57 / 69

57) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

B) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

C) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

D) Determine who is accountable for the incident

58 / 69

58) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) Increase in compensation

B) A rise in venue insurance costs

C) An upgrade for all involved

D) An increased risk of harm

59 / 69

59) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

B) Gender identity of the person

C) Place of the intervention

D) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

60 / 69

60) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

B) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

C) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

D) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

61 / 69

61) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

B) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

C) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

D) When the incident occurred

62 / 69

62) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Tranquility

B) Low blood pressure

C) Low temperature

D) Unexpected or increase strength

63 / 69

63) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Within 72 hours of the incident

B) Whilst the witnesses are still present

C) As soon as practically possible

D) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

64 / 69

64) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

B) Handling the individual independently.

C) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

D) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

65 / 69

65) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

B) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

C) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

D) Encourage secondary control alternatives

66 / 69

66) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) May lose interest in the physical intervention

B) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

C) May feel threatened by others

D) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

67 / 69

67) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Violence

B) Use of self-defense weapon

C) Control and restraint

D) Conflict management

68 / 69

68) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

B) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

C) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

D) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

69 / 69

69) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Use of handcuffs and ties

B) Techniques which isolate the individual

C) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

D) Tactics to keep yourself safe

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

Quick Links

Upcoming Training Courses

SIA Approved Security Training Course

Our Security Services

Our Construction Services

Forms & Submissions

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

Quick Links

Upcoming Training Courses

SIA Approved Security Training Course

Our Security Services

Our Construction Services

Forms & Submissions

Login to your account

Register Account

Register for new job alert