Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To avoid complaints from individuals

D) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

2 / 99

2) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Removing the carbon dioxide

B) Adding more oxygen

C) Adding more heat

D) Removing the fuel

3 / 99

3) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Might be conducting suspicious activities

B) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

C) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

D) Are an employee running late for a meeting

4 / 99

4) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Reducing opportunities for crimes

B) Limiting communication between security teams

C) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

D) Promoting competition among local businesses

5 / 99

5) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

B) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

C) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

D) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

6 / 99

6) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A security operative speaking to a customer

B) A notice posted on a door

C) A facial expression showing confusion

D) Listening to a colleague's opinion

7 / 99

7) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

B) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

C) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

D) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

8 / 99

8) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A package left unattended

B) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

C) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

D) A colleague having an asthma attack

9 / 99

9) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Sending a text message

C) Writing a polite email

D) Using hand signals to direct someone

10 / 99

10) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

B) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

C) Lift the load using the back muscles

D) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

11 / 99

11) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

C) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

12 / 99

12) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Have no special powers of arrest

D) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

13 / 99

13) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

C) To make the communication sound more complex

D) To add a formal tone to the conversation

14 / 99

14) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

15 / 99

15) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

C) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

16 / 99

16) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It leads to more competition among staff

B) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

C) It means fewer security staff are needed

D) It increases individual recognition

17 / 99

17) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

B) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

C) Increased exposure to potential violence

D) Reduced access to basic health support

18 / 99

18) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) An epileptic seizure

C) A slip on a wet floor

D) A heart attack

19 / 99

19) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only general instructions without specific details

B) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

D) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

20 / 99

20) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Promote high standards within the industry

B) Guarantee low prices for security services

C) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

21 / 99

21) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Directly confront the individual

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

C) Contact the transport's customer service team

D) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

22 / 99

22) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely overlook the incident and move on

B) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

C) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

D) To review an incident but take no reflective action

23 / 99

23) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It removes the need to contact emergency services

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

24 / 99

24) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

B) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

C) Documenting found items

D) Recording shift instructions and break durations

25 / 99

25) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Having a discussion with a family member

C) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

26 / 99

26) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) An assault

B) Parking offenses

C) A noise complaint

D) Littering

27 / 99

27) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

B) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

C) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

28 / 99

28) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Being confrontational

B) Speaking calmly

C) Writing down instructions

D) Speaking in an aggressive tone

29 / 99

29) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Regulating the security industry through licensing

B) Offering financial support to security contractors

C) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

D) Training security staff for private companies

30 / 99

30) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for future issues

B) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

C) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

D) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

31 / 99

31) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

B) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

C) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

D) Common illnesses among employees

32 / 99

32) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

B) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

C) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

D) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

33 / 99

33) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Training employees in fire safety procedures

B) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

C) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

D) Providing first aid to injured staff

34 / 99

34) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

B) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

C) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

D) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

35 / 99

35) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

B) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

C) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

D) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

36 / 99

36) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

B) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

C) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

D) Engaging the person with professional customer service

37 / 99

37) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Reading a text message aloud

B) Speaking clearly to someone

C) Making a phone call

D) Using hand gestures

38 / 99

38) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Temporary suspension from their job

B) Verbal warning from their employer

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Civil or criminal prosecution

39 / 99

39) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To make personal notes about customers

B) To avoid working extra hours

C) To improve the reputation of the venue

D) To comply with legal requirements

40 / 99

40) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Recount only the parts that seem important

B) State the total number of visitors

C) List the names of staff present

D) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

41 / 99

41) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside work

B) Potential promotions within the company

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Dress code policies

42 / 99

42) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of hazardous materials

43 / 99

43) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

C) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

D) It never captures sensitive information

44 / 99

44) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

B) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

45 / 99

45) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Dishonesty

C) Integrity

D) Indifference

46 / 99

46) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

D) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

47 / 99

47) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To provide contact details for medical services

B) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

C) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

48 / 99

48) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

B) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

C) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

D) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

49 / 99

49) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Ignore their complaints directly

B) Deny there's any problem

C) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

D) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

50 / 99

50) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

B) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

C) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

D) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

51 / 99

51) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for public awareness

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Accessed only by authorized personnel

D) Deleted after one month

52 / 99

52) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

B) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

C) Something that might cause occasional distractions

D) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

53 / 99

53) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

D) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

54 / 99

54) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Call their superior before taking any actions

B) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

D) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

55 / 99

55) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

B) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

C) Increasing entry fees to control access

D) Hosting private social events for the community

56 / 99

56) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Developing negative coping mechanisms

B) Optimized focus on work projects

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Enhanced team dynamics

57 / 99

57) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

B) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

C) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

D) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

58 / 99

58) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

59 / 99

59) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Colleagues and management

B) Online gaming communities

C) Social media platforms

D) Entertainment websites and apps

60 / 99

60) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

B) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

61 / 99

61) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

B) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

C) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

D) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

62 / 99

62) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Check the building for any missing people

B) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

C) Proceed to the assembly point

D) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

63 / 99

63) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When discussing personal matters outside of work

B) When scheduling breaks for security staff

C) When arranging office furniture

D) When interacting with hostile customers

64 / 99

64) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

B) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

C) To avoid supporting each individual customer

D) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

65 / 99

65) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) SIA standards and the company's established values

C) Personal preferences for handling situations

D) Instructions from colleagues

66 / 99

66) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

B) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

C) To submit complaints against security personnel

D) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

67 / 99

67) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is extremely unlikely

B) An attack is likely

C) An attack is possible but unlikely

D) An attack is highly likely

68 / 99

68) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Reviewing old criminal offenses

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

69 / 99

69) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It encourages competition among colleagues

B) It promotes communication and collaboration

C) It increases individual accountability

D) It enables individuals to work independently

70 / 99

70) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To improve employee productivity and performance

B) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To estimate costs for safety equipment

D) To limit employee movement around the premises

71 / 99

71) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

C) Managing public relations for private companies

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

72 / 99

72) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A search register

B) A duty sheet

C) A visitor log

D) An accident report

73 / 99

73) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

B) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

C) Activate the fire alarm

D) Immediately evacuate the building

74 / 99

74) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

B) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

C) Photograph it and then throw it away

D) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

75 / 99

75) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is highly improbable

B) When it is almost certain to happen

C) When it is possible but not likely

D) When it is unlikely but still possible

76 / 99

76) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

B) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

C) Taking part in group activities with friends

D) Directing security to a distressed individual

77 / 99

77) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

B) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

C) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

D) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

78 / 99

78) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Removing them from the premises

B) Clear and concise communication

C) Offering physical assistance

D) Providing immediate medical attention

79 / 99

79) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

B) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To show authority and control over the situation

80 / 99

80) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A colleague asking for help with a task

B) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A manager requesting information

81 / 99

81) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

B) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

C) Giving the customer all of the information at once

D) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

82 / 99

82) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

B) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

C) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

D) Alert the appropriate emergency services

83 / 99

83) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

B) Report the injury to their employer

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Only document it if they require medical treatment

84 / 99

84) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

B) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

C) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

D) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

85 / 99

85) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Changes in behavior

B) Consistent injuries

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Positive self-esteem

86 / 99

86) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

B) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To gather information about the offense

87 / 99

87) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Guiding someone to a safe place

B) Informing someone of their legal rights

C) Depriving someone of their freedom

D) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

88 / 99

88) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Local councils handle all the cases

B) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

C) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

89 / 99

89) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) An individual stealing sensitive information

B) Hacking into a company's computer systems

C) Release of dangerous substances

D) Use of firearms

90 / 99

90) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

B) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

C) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

D) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

91 / 99

91) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

92 / 99

92) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Searching for a crowded area

B) Calmly walking away

C) Freezing and surrendering

D) Fight or flight

93 / 99

93) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual who appears disoriented

D) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

94 / 99

94) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

B) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Notify the victim's family before taking action

95 / 99

95) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) May result in increased stress for the security operative

B) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

C) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

D) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

96 / 99

96) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Conducting highly visible patrols

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

D) Ignoring minor incidents

97 / 99

97) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

B) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

C) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

D) Requesting assistance with directions

98 / 99

98) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Having a clear sense of direction

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Being confident and energetic

99 / 99

99) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Maintenance person

B) Customer support agent

C) Personal trainer

D) Vehicle immobilizer

Your score is

The average score is 61%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A power outage

B) A gas leak

C) A water leak

D) A fire

2 / 92

2) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

B) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

C) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

D) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

3 / 92

3) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) Any previous self-protection training they had

B) What they observed and their names

C) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

D) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

4 / 92

4) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

B) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

C) Cases of common colds among employees

D) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

5 / 92

5) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Using local support organizations

B) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

C) Booking a taxi for the individual

D) Requesting assistance from the police

6 / 92

6) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A colleague seeking help with a task

B) A manager requesting information

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

7 / 92

7) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Contacting emergency services.

B) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

C) Investigating the cause before taking action.

D) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

8 / 92

8) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

B) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

C) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

9 / 92

9) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Deleted after one month

B) Shared on social media for awareness

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Accessible only by authorized personnel

10 / 92

10) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Office receptionist

B) Private investigator

C) Manned Guarding

D) Delivery driver

11 / 92

11) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Water

B) Fire hose

C) Fire blanket

D) Sprinkler system

12 / 92

12) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

B) To immediately leave the scene

C) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

D) To inform the media about the arrest

13 / 92

13) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Water, heat, and oxygen

B) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

C) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

D) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

14 / 92

14) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

15 / 92

15) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Asking security staff for directions

16 / 92

16) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

B) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

C) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

D) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

17 / 92

17) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

18 / 92

18) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

B) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

C) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

D) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

19 / 92

19) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To review an incident without taking reflective action

C) To help them avoid discussing the incident

D) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

20 / 92

20) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Call the transport's customer service team

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Only report it if a crime occurs

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

21 / 92

21) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) High-visibility patrols

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

D) Ignoring minor incidents

22 / 92

22) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

B) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

C) To question the suspect about the offense

D) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

23 / 92

23) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

24 / 92

24) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

B) Recording shift instructions and break times

C) Documenting found items

D) Documenting visitor logs

25 / 92

25) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Notify the victim's family before taking action

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

26 / 92

26) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

B) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

C) A child playing outdoors with friends

D) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

27 / 92

27) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

B) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

C) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

D) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

28 / 92

28) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for issues

B) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

C) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

D) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

29 / 92

29) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

B) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

C) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

D) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

30 / 92

30) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review their statement and the relevant case details

B) Wait until the last minute to arrive

C) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

31 / 92

31) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

B) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

C) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

D) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

32 / 92

32) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class A

B) Class F

C) Class D

D) Class B

33 / 92

33) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

B) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

C) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

D) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

34 / 92

34) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) A heart attack

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A slip on a wet floor

35 / 92

35) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to call emergency services

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It eliminates the need for other security measures

D) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

36 / 92

36) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

B) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

C) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

37 / 92

37) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving hot cooking oils

B) A fire involving wood or rubber

C) A fire involving butane gas

D) A fire involving petrol or paint

38 / 92

38) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Employee social gatherings outside of work

C) Dress code policies

D) Work-related personal projects

39 / 92

39) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

B) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

C) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

D) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

40 / 92

40) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Training security personnel for private firms.

B) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

C) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

D) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

41 / 92

41) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

B) Preparing to use physical restraints

C) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

D) Improving team morale

42 / 92

42) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Locking all entrances and exits

B) Ensuring security personnel leave first

C) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

D) Blocking access to all staircases

43 / 92

43) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Participation in team-building activities

B) Access to company resources

C) Allocation of lunch breaks

D) Compensation and employee benefits

44 / 92

44) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

C) An individual who appears disoriented

D) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

45 / 92

45) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Stop and search for the fire's source

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Sound the alarm

D) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

46 / 92

46) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

B) Assisting a lost individual

C) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

D) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

47 / 92

47) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When planning breaks for security staff

D) When managing office furniture layout

48 / 92

48) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Immediately search the individual

B) Proceed to question the individual

C) Detain the individual

D) Escort the individual off the premises

49 / 92

49) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

B) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

C) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

D) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

50 / 92

50) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

B) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

C) Denying that there is any issue

D) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

51 / 92

51) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

52 / 92

52) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Personal preferences in handling situations

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) SIA standards and the company's values

D) Instructions from colleagues

53 / 92

53) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To reduce security visibility to the public

B) To avoid any staff interactions

C) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

D) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

54 / 92

54) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Disposed of and logged

B) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

C) Preserved and handed over to the police

D) Photographed and then discarded

55 / 92

55) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It can only be used indoors

B) It cannot record any criminal activities

C) It can only be used outdoors

D) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

56 / 92

56) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Good team-building activities

B) Financial bonuses

C) Effective practices

D) New opportunities for equipment

57 / 92

57) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Speaking in a calm manner.

B) Providing written instructions.

C) Being argumentative.

D) Using an aggressive tone.

58 / 92

58) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

C) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

D) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

59 / 92

59) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

B) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

D) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

60 / 92

60) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can detain individuals until they confess

B) Have no special powers of arrest

C) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

D) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

61 / 92

61) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

B) A red circle with a line through it

C) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

D) A blue square with a cross

62 / 92

62) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

B) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

C) To avoid attending required safety training.

D) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

63 / 92

63) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Sending a text message

C) Smiling or frowning

D) Writing a polite email

64 / 92

64) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

B) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

C) Limited access to basic health support.

D) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

65 / 92

65) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of all staff present

B) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

C) Recount only the seemingly important parts

D) State the total number of visitors

66 / 92

66) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Citizens Advice Bureau

B) Samaritans

C) Trade unions

D) The local community center

67 / 92

67) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It allows individuals to work in isolation

B) It fosters communication and cooperation

C) It increases individual responsibility

D) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

68 / 92

68) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

69 / 92

69) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Unlikely but conceivable

B) Nearly certain

C) Highly improbable

D) Possible but unlikely

70 / 92

70) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It reduces the need for training and oversight

B) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

C) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

D) It increases risks for both staff and the public

71 / 92

71) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Engaging in group activities with friends

B) Closely observing and tracking individuals

C) Offering aid to people in distress

D) Guiding security towards a distressed person

72 / 92

72) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Temporary suspension from their job

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Civil or criminal prosecution

D) A verbal warning from their employer

73 / 92

73) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

74 / 92

74) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

C) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

75 / 92

75) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Foam

B) CO2 Gas

C) Water

D) Wet chemical

76 / 92

76) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

77 / 92

77) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

B) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

C) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

D) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

78 / 92

78) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals initiate cases in court

B) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

C) Local councils manage all cases

D) The state brings charges against individuals

79 / 92

79) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

B) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

C) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

D) Inform a manager and record the incident.

80 / 92

80) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Murder

B) Assault

C) Breach of contract

D) Burglary

81 / 92

81) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

B) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

C) Organizing private gatherings within the community

D) Increasing entry fees for access control

82 / 92

82) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The use of firearms.

B) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

C) The release of hazardous substances.

D) Theft of sensitive information.

83 / 92

83) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Reducing communication between team members

B) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

C) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

D) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

84 / 92

84) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of first aid kits

B) The location of hazardous materials

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

85 / 92

85) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Being confident and energetic

86 / 92

86) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

B) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

C) It prevents involvement from local authorities

D) It ensures no one will challenge actions

87 / 92

87) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

D) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

88 / 92

88) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

B) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

C) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

D) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

89 / 92

89) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) A security benefits scheme for employees

D) The approved contractor scheme

90 / 92

90) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 400 meters.

B) Approximately 100 meters.

C) Approximately 300 meters.

D) Approximately 200 meters.

91 / 92

91) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

B) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

C) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

D) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

92 / 92

92) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Clear

B) Concise

C) Conclusion

D) Complete

Your score is

The average score is 66%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

B) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

C) avoid any staff interactions

D) reduce security visibility to the public

2 / 64

2) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Recruiting new security officers

B) A security benefits scheme for employees

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) The approved contractor scheme

3 / 64

3) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To improve employee productivity and performance

B) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To limit employee movement around the premises

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

4 / 64

4) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) A colleague having an asthma attack

C) A package left unattended

D) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

5 / 64

5) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It decreases the need for training and supervision

B) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

C) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

D) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

6 / 64

6) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) promote high standards within the industry

B) guarantee low prices for security services

C) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) limit the number of security providers within the industry

7 / 64

7) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) Listening to a colleague's opinion

B) A facial expression showing confusion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

8 / 64

8) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is possible but unlikely

C) An attack is likely

D) An attack is extremely unlikely

9 / 64

9) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

D) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

10 / 64

10) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

B) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

C) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

11 / 64

11) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) parking offences

B) littering

C) an assault

D) a police complaint

12 / 64

12) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

B) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

C) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

D) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

13 / 64

13) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

14 / 64

14) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A blue square with a cross

B) A red circle with a line through it

C) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

D) A white circle with a black cross

15 / 64

15) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To take away someone's liberty

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To escort someone to safety

16 / 64

16) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To gather information about the offence

C) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

D) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

17 / 64

17) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

18 / 64

18) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

D) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

19 / 64

19) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

20 / 64

20) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) Samaritans

C) The local community centre

D) Citizens Advice Bureau

21 / 64

21) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

22 / 64

22) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Removing the fuel

B) Adding more heat

C) Adding more oxygen

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

23 / 64

23) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Follow the company's procedures and policies

B) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

C) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

D) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

24 / 64

24) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with the law

B) To improve the reputation of the venue

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To make personal notes about customers

25 / 64

25) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Positive self-esteem

B) Consistent injuries

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Changes in behaviour

26 / 64

26) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Having a discussion with a family member

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

27 / 64

27) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Sound the alarm

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

28 / 64

28) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Personal trainer

B) Customer support agent

C) Vehicle immobiliser

D) Maintenance person

29 / 64

29) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

B) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

C) To avoid contact with any key personnel

D) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

30 / 64

30) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

B) might be conducting suspicious activities

C) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

D) are an employee running late for a meeting

31 / 64

31) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

B) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

C) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

32 / 64

32) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Limiting communication between security teams

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

33 / 64

33) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Giving the customer all of the information at once

B) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

C) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

D) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

34 / 64

34) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Indifference

C) Dishonesty

D) Integrity

35 / 64

35) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

B) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

C) To show authority and control over the situation

D) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

36 / 64

36) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

B) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

C) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

D) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

37 / 64

37) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child being closely supervised by parents

B) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

C) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

D) A child playing in a field with friends

38 / 64

38) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

39 / 64

39) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

B) To avoid complaints from individuals

C) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

D) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

40 / 64

40) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A visitor log

B) A duty sheet

C) A search register

D) An accident report

41 / 64

41) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Optimised focus on work projects

B) Enhanced team dynamics

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Developing negative coping mechanisms

42 / 64

42) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

B) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

C) Requesting assistance with directions

D) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

43 / 64

43) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

D) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

44 / 64

44) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

B) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

C) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

D) may result in increased stress for the security operative

45 / 64

45) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Wet chemical

B) Foam

C) Water

D) CO2 Gas

46 / 64

46) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Reviewing old criminal offences

B) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

47 / 64

47) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

B) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

C) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

D) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

48 / 64

48) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

C) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

D) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

49 / 64

49) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

50 / 64

50) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Any disease related to the workplace

B) Only serious contagious diseases

C) Any disease not related to the workplace

D) Cutting an individual to an employee

51 / 64

51) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

B) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

52 / 64

52) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

B) Requesting assistance from the police

C) Using local support organisations

D) Booking a taxi for the individual

53 / 64

53) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Breach of contract

B) Burglary

C) Murder

D) Assault

54 / 64

54) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) People freezing in place due to shock

B) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

C) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Making a phone call

B) Speaking clearly to someone

C) Reading a text message aloud

D) Using hand gestures

56 / 64

56) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To make the communication sound more complex

B) To add a formal tone to the conversation

C) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

57 / 64

57) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

B) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

C) Engaging the person with professional customer service

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

58 / 64

58) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) better understand how to escalate situations

B) recognise areas for improvement

C) boost team morale

D) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

59 / 64

59) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 100 metres

B) 300 metres

C) 400 metres

D) 200 metres

60 / 64

60) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

B) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

C) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

D) Moving people into a secure area in a building

61 / 64

61) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Pay and benefits

B) Lunch breaks

C) Team-building activities

D) Use of company resources

62 / 64

62) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Clear communication

B) Physical assistance

C) Removal from the premises

D) Medical attention

63 / 64

63) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

B) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

C) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

D) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

64 / 64

64) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

B) Loud music

C) Use of toilets

D) Consumption of food

2 / 70

2) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

B) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

C) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

D) Could become a victim of a crime

3 / 70

3) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Direct

B) Forensic

C) Incidental

D) Hearsay

4 / 70

4) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Search individuals on entry

B) Inform the police of each event

C) Photograph customers on entry

D) Ban bags at the venue

5 / 70

5) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Ensuring the premises remains full

B) Writing the admission policy

C) Promoting house rules

D) Advertising venue theme nights

6 / 70

6) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

B) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

C) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

D) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

7 / 70

7) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Record the incident using a mobile phone

B) Contact the licensing officer

C) Contact the venue’s head office

D) Contact the emergency service

8 / 70

8) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Drug dealing

B) Being aware

C) Drug use

D) Being intoxicated

9 / 70

9) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) When a problem is reported by someone

B) When barriers are moved by customers

C) At all times to ensure safe queuing

D) When the numbers exceed 100

10 / 70

10) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

B) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

C) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

D) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

11 / 70

11) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) A searchlight

B) An archway metal detector (AMD)

C) A plastic detector

D) A search wand

12 / 70

12) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Pool

B) Darts

C) Chess

D) Roulette

13 / 70

13) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Incident questionnaire

B) Incident log

C) Visitor log

D) Incident report

14 / 70

14) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They identify those who have been banned

B) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

C) They can be used by management for marketing

D) They help to record all customers’ faces

15 / 70

15) The types of searches are:

A) General, Handpicked, Race related

B) Thorough, X-Ray, General

C) General, Random, Specific

D) National, Private, Public

16 / 70

16) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Approachable customers

B) Understanding customers

C) Being monitored by CCTV

D) Violent behaviour

17 / 70

17) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

B) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

C) Call an ambulance

D) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

18 / 70

18) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Loot

B) Burglary

C) Theft

D) Sabotage

19 / 70

19) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

B) Document of those responsible in your notebook

C) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

D) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

20 / 70

20) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

B) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

C) Follow the local seize and secure policy

D) Make all venues aware of the incident

21 / 70

21) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

B) Get permission from the customer

C) Inform management that a search is in progress

D) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

22 / 70

22) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

B) Seal it in a plastic bag

C) Flush it down the toilet

D) Dispose in the general waste bin

23 / 70

23) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Drug dealing

B) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

C) Gaming or gambling without a licence

D) Solicitation

24 / 70

24) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

B) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

C) Monitoring drink sales performance

D) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

25 / 70

25) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A plastic detector

B) A search wand

C) An archway metal detector (AMD)

D) A searchlight

26 / 70

26) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

B) A female taking selfies with a male

C) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

D) A group of females chatting with a group of males

27 / 70

27) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Grievous bodily harm

B) Trespass

C) Rape

D) Common assault

28 / 70

28) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) It helps customers to plan their evening

B) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

C) They may not like the drinks served inside

D) It may help to reduce potential conflict

29 / 70

29) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

B) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

C) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

D) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

30 / 70

30) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

B) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

C) A Serious assault outside the venue

D) An argument between a couple inside the venue

31 / 70

31) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

B) Set new maximum occupancy limits

C) Power of closure

D) Confiscate musical equipment

32 / 70

32) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

B) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

C) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

D) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

33 / 70

33) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

B) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

C) They can be used by management for marketing

D) They identify those who have been banned.

34 / 70

34) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

B) Record search details in your incident book

C) Inform your manager

D) Carry search alone in a private area

35 / 70

35) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) An incident occurring inside the venue

B) Drunk people outside the venue

C) Ejection of a customer

D) Ejection of a customer

36 / 70

36) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) Whilst witnessing an incident

B) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

C) After consulting with supervisors

D) Only in block capital letters

37 / 70

37) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

B) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

C) Keep customers entertained while waiting

D) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

38 / 70

38) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Actual Bodily Harm

B) Common Assault

C) Grievous Bodily Harm

D) Grand Bodily Harm

39 / 70

39) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Withhold information from customers

B) Investigate each customer in detail.

C) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

D) Make way for VIPs

40 / 70

40) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

B) Trespass, robbery and theft

C) Assault, Theft, and Drug

D) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

41 / 70

41) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Tranquilisers

B) Cannabis

C) Heroin

D) Amphetamines

42 / 70

42) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

B) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

C) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

D) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

43 / 70

43) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A door supervisor

B) The manager

C) A member of staff

D) A customer

44 / 70

44) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Seize the item and deny them to enter

B) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

C) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

D) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

45 / 70

45) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) minimize the bar queue time

B) promote customer to interact with each other

C) Improve customers’ safety

D) Show what a great venue you have

46 / 70

46) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) The revenue of the business you work for

B) Ensuring admission policy is followed

C) Enforcing parking fines

D) Escorting customers home

47 / 70

47) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class D

D) Class C

48 / 70

48) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Unpredictable behavior

B) Dilated pupils

C) Falling sleep

D) Powder traces under the nose

49 / 70

49) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

B) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

C) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

D) The day-to-day operation of the premises

50 / 70

50) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) By local MPs

B) Social Media outlets

C) National Threat Level information

D) Local Radio

51 / 70

51) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Forensic

B) Circumstantial

C) Hearsay

D) Documentary

52 / 70

52) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

B) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

C) Help prevent complaints from local residents

D) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

53 / 70

53) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

B) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

C) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

D) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

54 / 70

54) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Ring to the police

B) Search anyway

C) Notify the manager

D) Reject their entry

55 / 70

55) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) Clinical Waste

B) In the regular trash container

C) In the street refuse bin

D) In the broken glass bin

56 / 70

56) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

B) 20-year prison sentence

C) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

D) 12-year prison sentence and fine

57 / 70

57) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Fear

B) Exposure to carbon monoxide

C) Drug use

D) Nervousness

58 / 70

58) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) Random individuals are searched

B) Specific individuals are searched

C) All individuals is searched

D) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

59 / 70

59) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

B) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

C) When the venue has a large queue

D) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

60 / 70

60) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Safety goggles

B) Ear defenders

C) Gloves

D) Face shield

61 / 70

61) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

C) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

D) How many radios are available for use at the premises

62 / 70

62) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) Ask the venue’s manager

B) explore on the internet

C) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

D) inqure a member of the bar staff

63 / 70

63) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Trespass

B) Criminal damage

C) Offensive behavior

D) Unlawful entry

64 / 70

64) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Inform your supervisor

B) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

C) Destroy it yourself

D) Call the emergency services

65 / 70

65) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Decrease customer numbers

B) Increase the likelihood of conflict

C) Increase customer numbers

D) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

66 / 70

66) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) An offensive weapon

B) A dangerous weapon

C) A harmful weapon

D) A personal weapon

67 / 70

67) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

B) The race of the individual

C) The group of friends around an individual

D) Facial hair

68 / 70

68) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

B) Obtain person's permission

C) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

D) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

69 / 70

69) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Licensing objectives

B) Licensing federation

C) Venue security measures

D) Public safety regulation

70 / 70

70) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

B) How many radios are available for use at the premises

C) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

D) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

B) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

C) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

D) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

2 / 50

2) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Begin to use abusive personal language

B) Stand further away from the employee

C) Bully at them and tell jokes

D) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

3 / 50

3) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

4 / 50

4) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) The customer might bring his friends

B) For the safety of yourself and others

C) You cannot guarantee victory

D) You might be fired from your workplace

5 / 50

5) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Being unsure of what action is taken

B) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

C) Having strong personal values

D) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

6 / 50

6) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

B) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

C) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

D) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

7 / 50

7) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

B) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

C) It minimizes the chances of a risk

D) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

8 / 50

8) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Kick the customer out without warning

B) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

C) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

D) Exert all available force

9 / 50

9) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

B) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

C) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

D) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

10 / 50

10) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The lead security operative

B) The manager

C) The Victim Support Scheme

D) The Local Council

11 / 50

11) Empathy means being able to:

A) Share someone else's opinion

B) Ignore someone else's opinion

C) Understand another person’s point of view

D) Encourage another person’s perception

12 / 50

12) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Effective communication

B) Poor communication

C) Concise communication

D) Persuasive communication

13 / 50

13) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

B) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

C) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

D) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

14 / 50

14) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

B) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

D) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

15 / 50

15) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Capable

B) Motivated

C) Patronised

D) Assertive

16 / 50

16) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Advising to the customer

B) Being assertive towards the customer

C) Not listening to the customer

D) Speaking to the customer seriously

17 / 50

17) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To get increase in salary

B) Make a positive impression on your manager

C) To pick up trends

D) To get a promotion

18 / 50

18) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Approachable

B) Less

C) Reasonable

D) Mandatory

19 / 50

19) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

B) Force to stop an argument

C) Threaten to call the police

D) Take one to another room to separate them

20 / 50

20) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

B) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

C) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

D) It empowers the customer to take charge

21 / 50

21) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) gesturing with open palms

B) only paying partial attention to the other person

C) Facing the other person directly

D) Dodging eye contact

22 / 50

22) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Crime Stoppers

B) Child Line

C) Samaritans

D) Victim Support

23 / 50

23) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Loses face

B) Made to feel welcome

C) Treated like a valued guest

D) Shocked

24 / 50

24) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak calmly

B) Speak quickly

C) Speak aggressively

D) Speak loudly

25 / 50

25) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will avoid being disciplined

B) Will continue to perform well

C) Can ignore injury

D) May get disciplined

26 / 50

26) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

B) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

C) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

D) The conflict will remain unresolved

27 / 50

27) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Not providing relevant information

B) Being fearful of the consequences

C) Being kept waiting

D) Being disregarded

28 / 50

28) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

B) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

C) Note down the instructions

D) Develop a rapport with the customer

29 / 50

29) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Нарру

B) Appreciated

C) Comfortable

D) Insulted

30 / 50

30) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Political barrier

B) Social barrier

C) Physical barrier

D) Psychological barrier

31 / 50

31) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

B) Their thought processes become more logical

C) Their heartbeat decelerates

D) Their hearing tunes into the threat

32 / 50

32) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Suitable

B) Minimal

C) Reasonable

D) Mandatory

33 / 50

33) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

B) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

C) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

D) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

34 / 50

34) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

B) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

C) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

D) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

35 / 50

35) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

B) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

36 / 50

36) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to force their way past the employee

B) Try to talk their way out of the situation

C) Hold until the employee moves

D) Tell the manager

37 / 50

37) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) By criticising the actions of the customer

B) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

C) Showing empathy towards the customer

D) Being bossy towards the customer

38 / 50

38) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

B) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

C) Being threatening

D) Being assertive

39 / 50

39) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Different cultures

B) Diverse hair colour

C) Various clothes

D) Different eye colour

40 / 50

40) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Empowered

C) Motivated

D) Angry

41 / 50

41) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and psychological

B) Irrational and emotional

C) Rational and social

D) Rational and emotional

42 / 50

42) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Loss of your employment

B) Have your driver's license suspended

C) An argument

D) The customer departing

43 / 50

43) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) May get disciplined

B) might avoid injury

C) Will still do a nice job

D) Will ignore being disciplined

44 / 50

44) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Compromised

B) A win-win

C) A spin-off

D) Empathic

45 / 50

45) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Being rude

B) Fighting back

C) Ignoring the legal consequences

D) Fear of retaliation

46 / 50

46) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Recognition

B) Motivation

C) Humiliation

D) Stimulus

47 / 50

47) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Assertiveness

B) Empathy

C) Frustration

D) Awareness

48 / 50

48) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Patience

B) Frustration

C) Violence

D) Assertiveness

49 / 50

49) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

B) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

C) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

D) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

50 / 50

50) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) The outcome is successful

B) Any direction given is followed

C) Your opinion is heard

D) They complain to management

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

B) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

C) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

D) When the incident occurred

2 / 69

2) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) Defensive skills are responsive

B) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

C) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

D) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

3 / 69

3) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

B) Positional asphyxia

C) Lowered blood pressure

D) Lowered body temperature

4 / 69

4) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Customer may become easier to deal with

B) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

C) Customer may become impatient

D) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

5 / 69

5) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) Head lock

B) 3-point restraint

C) Viable safety restraint

D) Prone Restraint

6 / 69

6) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Conflict management

B) Violence

C) Control and restraint

D) Use of self-defense weapon

7 / 69

7) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

B) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

C) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

D) Staff should not write anything down

8 / 69

8) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Civil litigation from the injured party

B) Promotion to head door supervisor

C) Paying less

D) Enhanced social media presence

9 / 69

9) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Showing bizarre behaviour

B) Having a low breathing rate

C) Having a low pulse rate

D) Agreeing to requests

10 / 69

10) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Prohibited from entering the venue

B) Forced to leave the venue

C) Taken into custody

D) Exposed to further injury or harm

11 / 69

11) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) Gender identity of the person

B) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

C) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

D) Place of the intervention

12 / 69

12) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

B) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

C) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

D) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

13 / 69

13) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Excessive Sweating

B) Being cold and calmly to touch

C) Having a regular pulse

D) Bleeding from the skin

14 / 69

14) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Whilst the witnesses are still present

B) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

C) Within 72 hours of the incident

D) As soon as practically possible

15 / 69

15) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could impair breathing

B) It could impair hearing

C) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

D) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

16 / 69

16) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

B) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

C) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

D) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

17 / 69

17) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Physical intervention is used before anything else

D) Physical intervention is illegal

18 / 69

18) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

B) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

C) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

D) Encourage secondary control alternatives

19 / 69

19) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Low body temperature

B) Calmness

C) Low blood pressure

D) Positional asphyxia

20 / 69

20) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

B) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

C) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

D) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

21 / 69

21) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) The use of a weapon

B) Conflict management

C) The use of pepper spray

D) Control and restraint

22 / 69

22) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

B) Reasonable

C) Rational

D) Respectable

23 / 69

23) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

B) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

C) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

D) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

24 / 69

24) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

B) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

C) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

D) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

25 / 69

25) What does the word Static mean?

A) In the right state

B) Unchanging

C) In a defensive state

D) In a state ready to be physical

26 / 69

26) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

B) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

C) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

D) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

27 / 69

27) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

B) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

C) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

D) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

28 / 69

28) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) The threat posted by the subject

B) What outfit the subject is wearing

C) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

D) The number of followers the subject has no social media

29 / 69

29) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

B) The person has stolen property hidden on them

C) The person is drunk or on drugs

D) The persons age, size and weight

30 / 69

30) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

B) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

C) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

D) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

31 / 69

31) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

B) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

C) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

D) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

32 / 69

32) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Face up (supine)

B) Face down (prone)

C) Standing restrictive restraint

D) Standing non- restrictive restraint

33 / 69

33) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

B) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

C) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

D) The door supervisor should use communication skills

34 / 69

34) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Unexpected or increase strength

B) Low blood pressure

C) Tranquility

D) Low temperature

35 / 69

35) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Techniques which isolate the individual

B) Conflict management skills

C) Tactics to keep yourself safe

D) Use of handcuffs or ties

36 / 69

36) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Decide who requires further training in restraint

B) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

C) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

D) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

37 / 69

37) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

B) Strength, and safety

C) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

D) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

38 / 69

38) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Self-inflicted injuries

B) Equipped with weapons

C) Law enforcement presence

D) Medical distress

39 / 69

39) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

B) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

C) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

D) Chance of being uploaded to social media

40 / 69

40) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Is advertised

B) Promotes safety

C) Make more money at the venue

D) Could lose their license

41 / 69

41) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) A promotion for all involved

B) An increased risk of harm

C) An increase in venue insurance costs

D) A pay increase

42 / 69

42) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Handcuffs

B) Physical aggression.

C) Verbal escalation

D) CCTV

43 / 69

43) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

B) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

C) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

D) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

44 / 69

44) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) A taxi queue

B) That the individual is conscious and breathing

C) The time

D) What is the number of attendees

45 / 69

45) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) You are more vulnerable on the floor

B) You should always maintain an authoritative position

C) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

D) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

46 / 69

46) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

B) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

C) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

D) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

47 / 69

47) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

B) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

C) All employers ask for references

D) Legislation may change

48 / 69

48) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Medical distress

B) Self-destructive behavior

C) Improvised weapons being carried

D) Law enforcement activity

49 / 69

49) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Martial arts

B) Unnecessary force

C) Effective communication

D) Handcuffs

50 / 69

50) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Hypohydration

B) Hypothermia

C) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

D) Mental health issues

51 / 69

51) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

B) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

C) Put the customer in the recovery position

D) Call for help

52 / 69

52) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

B) Hold them down until they calm down

C) Ignore any signs of medical issues

D) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

53 / 69

53) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

B) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

C) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

D) Determine who is accountable for the incident

54 / 69

54) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should get a warning

B) Staff should get a pay rise

C) Staff should be given support

D) Staff should return to work immediately

55 / 69

55) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Suffering endured by the people involved.

B) Criminal prosecution of those involved

C) Loss of wages of those involved

D) Advancement of the people concerned

56 / 69

56) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) An inability to breathe

B) Unrestricted breathing

C) A lower heart rate

D) A lower body temperature

57 / 69

57) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

B) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

C) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

D) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

58 / 69

58) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) May feel threatened by others

B) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

C) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

D) May lose interest in the physical intervention

59 / 69

59) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

B) Skillset of the door supervisor

C) Skillset of the subject

D) Method of restraint

60 / 69

60) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

B) Gather statements from all witnesses

C) Get rid of any evidence

D) Safeguard evidence

61 / 69

61) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Any restraint that impairs breathing

B) Calmly talking to customers

C) Not using physical restraints

D) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

62 / 69

62) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) All employers ask for it

B) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

C) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

D) Legislation may change

63 / 69

63) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Guidelines for restraining another person.

B) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

C) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

D) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

64 / 69

64) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

B) Physical intervention is illegal

C) Physical intervention is used before anything else

D) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

65 / 69

65) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Tactics to keep yourself safe

B) Use of handcuffs and ties

C) Techniques which isolate the individual

D) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

66 / 69

66) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) An increased risk of harm

B) An upgrade for all involved

C) A rise in venue insurance costs

D) Increase in compensation

67 / 69

67) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

B) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

C) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

D) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

68 / 69

68) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

B) Withdraw/De-escalate

C) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

D) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

69 / 69

69) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

B) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

C) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

D) Handling the individual independently.

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1A

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Module 1C

Module 2

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

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SIA Approved Security Training Course

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