Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

B) To ensure property is not damaged

C) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

D) To gather information about the offense

2 / 99

2) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

B) Recording shift instructions and break durations

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting found items

3 / 99

3) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

B) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

C) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

D) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

4 / 99

4) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of first aid kits

5 / 99

5) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A colleague asking for help with a task

B) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

C) A manager requesting information

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

6 / 99

6) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

B) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

C) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

D) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

7 / 99

7) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

B) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

D) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

8 / 99

8) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is likely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is possible but unlikely

9 / 99

9) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Reading a text message aloud

B) Using hand gestures

C) Speaking clearly to someone

D) Making a phone call

10 / 99

10) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

11 / 99

11) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

B) Directly confront the individual

C) Contact the transport's customer service team

D) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

12 / 99

12) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

13 / 99

13) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Alert the appropriate emergency services

B) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

C) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

D) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

14 / 99

14) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

D) Call their superior before taking any actions

15 / 99

15) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To limit employee movement around the premises

B) To estimate costs for safety equipment

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

16 / 99

16) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

B) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

C) Something that might cause occasional distractions

D) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

17 / 99

17) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

B) To avoid supporting each individual customer

C) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

D) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

18 / 99

18) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

B) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

C) To submit complaints against security personnel

D) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

19 / 99

19) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

B) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

C) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

D) An individual who appears disoriented

20 / 99

20) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

B) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

C) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

D) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

21 / 99

21) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Guarantee low prices for security services

B) Promote high standards within the industry

C) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

D) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

22 / 99

22) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) An assault

B) A noise complaint

C) Littering

D) Parking offenses

23 / 99

23) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

B) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

C) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

D) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

24 / 99

24) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To provide contact details for medical services

B) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

C) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

25 / 99

25) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely overlook the incident and move on

B) To review an incident but take no reflective action

C) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

D) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

26 / 99

26) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Decrease in social interactions

B) Consistent injuries

C) Positive self-esteem

D) Changes in behavior

27 / 99

27) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Sending a text message

D) Writing a polite email

28 / 99

28) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

D) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

29 / 99

29) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

B) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

C) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

D) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

30 / 99

30) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

B) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

31 / 99

31) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Photograph it and then throw it away

B) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

C) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

D) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

32 / 99

32) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

B) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

C) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

33 / 99

33) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Use of firearms

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Release of dangerous substances

D) Hacking into a company's computer systems

34 / 99

34) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A search register

B) A visitor log

C) An accident report

D) A duty sheet

35 / 99

35) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

C) To make the communication sound more complex

D) To add a formal tone to the conversation

36 / 99

36) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Increased motivation to perform better

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Optimized focus on work projects

D) Enhanced team dynamics

37 / 99

37) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

B) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

C) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

D) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

38 / 99

38) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Temporary suspension from their job

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Verbal warning from their employer

D) Civil or criminal prosecution

39 / 99

39) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Adding more heat

B) Removing the fuel

C) Adding more oxygen

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

40 / 99

40) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

B) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

C) Report the injury to their employer

D) Only document it if they require medical treatment

41 / 99

41) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Indifference

B) Integrity

C) Dishonesty

D) Aggression

42 / 99

42) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for future issues

B) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

43 / 99

43) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual accountability

B) It encourages competition among colleagues

C) It enables individuals to work independently

D) It promotes communication and collaboration

44 / 99

44) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Immediately evacuate the building

B) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

C) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

D) Activate the fire alarm

45 / 99

45) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

46 / 99

46) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

B) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

C) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

D) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

47 / 99

47) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Reviewing old criminal offenses

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

48 / 99

48) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It removes the need to contact emergency services

49 / 99

49) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

B) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

D) To avoid contact with any key personnel

50 / 99

50) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

B) Increasing entry fees to control access

C) Hosting private social events for the community

D) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

51 / 99

51) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Local councils handle all the cases

B) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

C) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

52 / 99

52) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

B) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

C) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

53 / 99

53) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with legal requirements

B) To improve the reputation of the venue

C) To make personal notes about customers

D) To avoid working extra hours

54 / 99

54) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

B) Common illnesses among employees

C) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

D) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

55 / 99

55) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

C) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

D) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

56 / 99

56) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Have no special powers of arrest

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

D) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

57 / 99

57) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

B) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

C) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

58 / 99

58) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Training security staff for private companies

B) Offering financial support to security contractors

C) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

D) Regulating the security industry through licensing

59 / 99

59) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Vehicle immobilizer

B) Personal trainer

C) Customer support agent

D) Maintenance person

60 / 99

60) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) Listening to a colleague's opinion

B) A facial expression showing confusion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

61 / 99

61) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

62 / 99

62) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

D) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

63 / 99

63) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of staff present

B) Recount only the parts that seem important

C) State the total number of visitors

D) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

64 / 99

64) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Conducting highly visible patrols

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

D) Ignoring minor incidents

65 / 99

65) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

C) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

D) Check the building for any missing people

66 / 99

66) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside work

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Potential promotions within the company

D) Dress code policies

67 / 99

67) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

D) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

68 / 99

68) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Guiding someone to a safe place

B) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

C) Informing someone of their legal rights

D) Depriving someone of their freedom

69 / 99

69) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

B) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

C) Giving the customer all of the information at once

D) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

70 / 99

70) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

D) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

71 / 99

71) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

B) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

C) Providing first aid to injured staff

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

72 / 99

72) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) SIA standards and the company's established values

C) Personal preferences for handling situations

D) Instructions from colleagues

73 / 99

73) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A software update on a laptop

D) A heart attack

74 / 99

74) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

B) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

C) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

D) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

75 / 99

75) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Deleted after one month

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Accessed only by authorized personnel

D) Shared on social media for public awareness

76 / 99

76) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

D) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

77 / 99

77) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Writing down instructions

B) Speaking in an aggressive tone

C) Being confrontational

D) Speaking calmly

78 / 99

78) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Having a discussion with a family member

B) Taking pictures of a tourist group

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

79 / 99

79) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Searching for a crowded area

B) Calmly walking away

C) Fight or flight

D) Freezing and surrendering

80 / 99

80) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Social media platforms

B) Entertainment websites and apps

C) Online gaming communities

D) Colleagues and management

81 / 99

81) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

B) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

C) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

D) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

82 / 99

82) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Attending an event with a group of friends

D) Having a clear sense of direction

83 / 99

83) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Removing them from the premises

B) Providing immediate medical attention

C) Offering physical assistance

D) Clear and concise communication

84 / 99

84) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It leads to more competition among staff

B) It increases individual recognition

C) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

D) It means fewer security staff are needed

85 / 99

85) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

B) Taking part in group activities with friends

C) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

D) Directing security to a distressed individual

86 / 99

86) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) May result in increased stress for the security operative

C) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

D) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

87 / 99

87) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

B) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

C) Ignore their complaints directly

D) Deny there's any problem

88 / 99

88) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is possible but not likely

B) When it is highly improbable

C) When it is almost certain to happen

D) When it is unlikely but still possible

89 / 99

89) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

B) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

90 / 99

90) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

B) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

C) To show authority and control over the situation

D) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

91 / 99

91) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

92 / 99

92) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

C) Notify the victim's family before taking action

D) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

93 / 99

93) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

B) Are an employee running late for a meeting

C) Might be conducting suspicious activities

D) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

94 / 99

94) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When discussing personal matters outside of work

B) When arranging office furniture

C) When scheduling breaks for security staff

D) When interacting with hostile customers

95 / 99

95) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Reduced access to basic health support

B) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

C) Increased exposure to potential violence

D) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

96 / 99

96) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

97 / 99

97) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

B) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

C) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

D) It never captures sensitive information

98 / 99

98) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) A package left unattended

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

99 / 99

99) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

B) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

C) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

D) Engaging the person with professional customer service

Your score is

The average score is 63%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

B) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

C) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

D) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

2 / 92

2) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for awareness

B) Accessible only by authorized personnel

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Deleted after one month

3 / 92

3) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire extinguishers

B) The location of hazardous materials

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of first aid kits

4 / 92

4) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Water, heat, and oxygen

B) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

C) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

D) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

5 / 92

5) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

6 / 92

6) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

B) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

C) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

7 / 92

7) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

B) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

C) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

D) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

8 / 92

8) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

C) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

D) People freezing in place due to shock

9 / 92

9) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

B) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

C) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

D) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

10 / 92

10) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It allows individuals to work in isolation

B) It fosters communication and cooperation

C) It increases individual responsibility

D) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

11 / 92

11) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Having a clear sense of direction

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

12 / 92

12) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

C) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

D) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

13 / 92

13) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Office receptionist

B) Private investigator

C) Delivery driver

D) Manned Guarding

14 / 92

14) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

B) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

15 / 92

15) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Proceed to the assembly point

16 / 92

16) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Unlikely but conceivable

B) Nearly certain

C) Possible but unlikely

D) Highly improbable

17 / 92

17) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) The approved contractor scheme

B) Offering discounts to security companies

C) A security benefits scheme for employees

D) Recruiting new security officers

18 / 92

18) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Wet chemical

B) CO2 Gas

C) Water

D) Foam

19 / 92

19) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals initiate cases in court

B) Local councils manage all cases

C) The state brings charges against individuals

D) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

20 / 92

20) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Avoid communication with their legal representative

B) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

C) Review their statement and the relevant case details

D) Wait until the last minute to arrive

21 / 92

21) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

B) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

C) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

D) Inform a manager and record the incident.

22 / 92

22) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

B) Investigating the cause before taking action.

C) Contacting emergency services.

D) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

23 / 92

23) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for issues

B) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

24 / 92

24) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Using local support organizations

B) Requesting assistance from the police

C) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

D) Booking a taxi for the individual

25 / 92

25) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) Instructions from colleagues

C) SIA standards and the company's values

D) Personal preferences in handling situations

26 / 92

26) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Assault

B) Burglary

C) Murder

D) Breach of contract

27 / 92

27) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) High-visibility patrols

B) Ignoring minor incidents

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

28 / 92

28) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It reduces the need for training and oversight

B) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

C) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

D) It increases risks for both staff and the public

29 / 92

29) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

B) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

C) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

D) Reducing communication between team members

30 / 92

30) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can detain individuals until they confess

B) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

C) Have no special powers of arrest

D) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

31 / 92

31) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

B) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

D) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

32 / 92

32) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

B) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

C) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

D) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

33 / 92

33) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

B) State the total number of visitors

C) Recount only the seemingly important parts

D) List the names of all staff present

34 / 92

34) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To inform the media about the arrest

B) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

C) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

D) To immediately leave the scene

35 / 92

35) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) A verbal warning from their employer

D) Temporary suspension from their job

36 / 92

36) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Immediately search the individual

B) Detain the individual

C) Escort the individual off the premises

D) Proceed to question the individual

37 / 92

37) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Writing a polite email

D) Smiling or frowning

38 / 92

38) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

B) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

C) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

D) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

39 / 92

39) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

B) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

C) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

D) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

40 / 92

40) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

B) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

C) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

D) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

41 / 92

41) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A power outage

B) A gas leak

C) A fire

D) A water leak

42 / 92

42) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It can only be used indoors

B) It cannot record any criminal activities

C) It can only be used outdoors

D) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

43 / 92

43) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside of work

B) Dress code policies

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Potential promotions within the company

44 / 92

44) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

B) The use of firearms.

C) The release of hazardous substances.

D) Theft of sensitive information.

45 / 92

45) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

B) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

C) Organizing private gatherings within the community

D) Increasing entry fees for access control

46 / 92

46) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

B) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

C) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

47 / 92

47) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

B) Providing legal representation to businesses

C) Managing public relations for private companies

D) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

48 / 92

48) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

B) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

C) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

D) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

49 / 92

49) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking action

B) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

C) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

D) Separate the victim from the attacker

50 / 92

50) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Access to company resources

B) Allocation of lunch breaks

C) Participation in team-building activities

D) Compensation and employee benefits

51 / 92

51) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

52 / 92

52) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A slip on a wet floor

B) A software update on a laptop

C) A heart attack

D) An epileptic seizure

53 / 92

53) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) The local community center

C) Samaritans

D) Citizens Advice Bureau

54 / 92

54) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

55 / 92

55) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class B

B) Class F

C) Class D

D) Class A

56 / 92

56) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

B) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

C) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

D) To avoid attending required safety training.

57 / 92

57) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Sound the alarm

C) Stop and search for the fire's source

D) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

58 / 92

58) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A manager requesting information

D) A colleague seeking help with a task

59 / 92

59) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

B) It ensures no one will challenge actions

C) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

D) It prevents involvement from local authorities

60 / 92

60) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A blue square with a cross

B) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

C) A red circle with a line through it

D) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

61 / 92

61) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It eliminates the need for other security measures

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It removes the need to call emergency services

62 / 92

62) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break times

B) Documenting found items

C) Documenting visitor logs

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

63 / 92

63) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Using an aggressive tone.

B) Being argumentative.

C) Providing written instructions.

D) Speaking in a calm manner.

64 / 92

64) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

B) Any previous self-protection training they had

C) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

D) What they observed and their names

65 / 92

65) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and tracking individuals

B) Guiding security towards a distressed person

C) Offering aid to people in distress

D) Engaging in group activities with friends

66 / 92

66) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Blocking access to all staircases

B) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

C) Ensuring security personnel leave first

D) Locking all entrances and exits

67 / 92

67) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Good team-building activities

B) Effective practices

C) Financial bonuses

D) New opportunities for equipment

68 / 92

68) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

B) To help them avoid discussing the incident

C) To review an incident without taking reflective action

D) To completely disregard the incident and move on

69 / 92

69) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

B) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

C) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

D) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

70 / 92

70) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

B) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

C) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

D) Limited access to basic health support.

71 / 92

71) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

B) Preparing to use physical restraints

C) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

D) Improving team morale

72 / 92

72) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

C) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

D) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

73 / 92

73) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Photographed and then discarded

B) Disposed of and logged

C) Preserved and handed over to the police

D) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

74 / 92

74) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Concise

B) Clear

C) Complete

D) Conclusion

75 / 92

75) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To reduce security visibility to the public

B) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

D) To avoid any staff interactions

76 / 92

76) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

B) An individual who appears disoriented

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

77 / 92

77) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

B) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

C) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

D) Denying that there is any issue

78 / 92

78) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 300 meters.

B) Approximately 100 meters.

C) Approximately 200 meters.

D) Approximately 400 meters.

79 / 92

79) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Sound the alarm

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

80 / 92

80) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

B) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

C) A child playing outdoors with friends

D) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

81 / 92

81) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Confront the individual directly

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

C) Only report it if a crime occurs

D) Call the transport's customer service team

82 / 92

82) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

C) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

D) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

83 / 92

83) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

B) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

C) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

D) Assisting a lost individual

84 / 92

84) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When planning breaks for security staff

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When managing office furniture layout

D) When dealing with aggressive customers

85 / 92

85) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

B) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

C) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

D) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

86 / 92

86) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

B) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

87 / 92

87) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire blanket

B) Fire hose

C) Sprinkler system

D) Water

88 / 92

88) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Asking security staff for directions

B) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

89 / 92

89) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

B) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

C) Cases of common colds among employees

D) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

90 / 92

90) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving butane gas

B) A fire involving petrol or paint

C) A fire involving wood or rubber

D) A fire involving hot cooking oils

91 / 92

91) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

B) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

C) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

D) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

92 / 92

92) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

C) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

D) To question the suspect about the offense

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Using hand gestures

B) Reading a text message aloud

C) Speaking clearly to someone

D) Making a phone call

2 / 64

2) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Only serious contagious diseases

B) Cutting an individual to an employee

C) Any disease related to the workplace

D) Any disease not related to the workplace

3 / 64

3) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) The approved contractor scheme

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) A security benefits scheme for employees

D) Offering discounts to security companies

4 / 64

4) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 200 metres

B) 300 metres

C) 100 metres

D) 400 metres

5 / 64

5) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

B) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

C) A child playing in a field with friends

D) A child being closely supervised by parents

6 / 64

6) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Using local support organisations

B) Requesting assistance from the police

C) Booking a taxi for the individual

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

7 / 64

7) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Help vulnerable people evacuate

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Sound the alarm

D) Check the fire extinguishers

8 / 64

8) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Citizens Advice Bureau

B) Trade unions

C) Samaritans

D) The local community centre

9 / 64

9) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

C) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

D) To gather information about the offence

10 / 64

10) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

B) may result in increased stress for the security operative

C) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

D) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

11 / 64

11) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Maintenance person

B) Personal trainer

C) Customer support agent

D) Vehicle immobiliser

12 / 64

12) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A search register

B) An accident report

C) A visitor log

D) A duty sheet

13 / 64

13) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) A colleague having an asthma attack

C) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

D) A package left unattended

14 / 64

14) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Positive self-esteem

B) Decrease in social interactions

C) Consistent injuries

D) Changes in behaviour

15 / 64

15) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Foam

B) CO2 Gas

C) Water

D) Wet chemical

16 / 64

16) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Planning out the route to the venue

B) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

C) Reviewing old criminal offences

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

17 / 64

17) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

D) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

18 / 64

18) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

B) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

C) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

D) Engaging the person with professional customer service

19 / 64

19) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

B) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

C) Providing first aid to injured staff

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

20 / 64

20) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It decreases the need for training and supervision

C) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

D) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

21 / 64

21) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To improve the reputation of the venue

B) To avoid working extra hours

C) To make personal notes about customers

D) To comply with the law

22 / 64

22) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Integrity

B) Aggression

C) Indifference

D) Dishonesty

23 / 64

23) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Moving people into a secure area in a building

B) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

C) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

D) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

24 / 64

24) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Having a discussion with a family member

25 / 64

25) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

B) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

C) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

D) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

26 / 64

26) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

B) are an employee running late for a meeting

C) might be conducting suspicious activities

D) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

27 / 64

27) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) promote high standards within the industry

B) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

C) guarantee low prices for security services

D) limit the number of security providers within the industry

28 / 64

28) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

B) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

C) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

D) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

29 / 64

29) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

C) Promoting competition among local businesses

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

30 / 64

30) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To take away someone's liberty

B) To escort someone to safety

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To inform someone of their rights

31 / 64

31) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is likely

B) An attack is possible but unlikely

C) An attack is highly likely

D) An attack is extremely unlikely

32 / 64

32) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

B) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

C) People freezing in place due to shock

D) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

33 / 64

33) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

B) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

C) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

D) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

34 / 64

34) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To show authority and control over the situation

B) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

35 / 64

35) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

36 / 64

36) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Lunch breaks

B) Use of company resources

C) Pay and benefits

D) Team-building activities

37 / 64

37) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

38 / 64

38) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

B) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

C) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

D) Requesting assistance with directions

39 / 64

39) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Physical assistance

B) Removal from the premises

C) Medical attention

D) Clear communication

40 / 64

40) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Removing the carbon dioxide

B) Adding more oxygen

C) Removing the fuel

D) Adding more heat

41 / 64

41) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

B) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

C) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

42 / 64

42) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

43 / 64

43) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

C) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

D) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

44 / 64

44) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

C) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

45 / 64

45) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

B) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

C) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

D) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

46 / 64

46) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

B) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

C) Follow the company's procedures and policies

D) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

47 / 64

47) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

48 / 64

48) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

B) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To make the communication sound more complex

49 / 64

49) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

B) To limit employee movement around the premises

C) To estimate costs for safety equipment

D) To improve employee productivity and performance

50 / 64

50) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

B) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

C) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

51 / 64

51) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

B) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

52 / 64

52) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A security operative speaking to a customer

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A facial expression showing confusion

53 / 64

53) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) avoid any staff interactions

B) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

C) reduce security visibility to the public

D) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

54 / 64

54) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

B) Licensing is optional for all security companies

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Optimised focus on work projects

B) Increased motivation to perform better

C) Enhanced team dynamics

D) Developing negative coping mechanisms

56 / 64

56) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A red circle with a line through it

B) A white circle with a black cross

C) A blue square with a cross

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

57 / 64

57) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Breach of contract

B) Murder

C) Assault

D) Burglary

58 / 64

58) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

D) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

59 / 64

59) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

B) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

C) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

D) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

60 / 64

60) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

C) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

D) Only document it if they require medical treatment

61 / 64

61) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

D) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

62 / 64

62) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Try to administer first aid without training

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

63 / 64

63) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) better understand how to escalate situations

B) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

C) recognise areas for improvement

D) boost team morale

64 / 64

64) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) a police complaint

B) parking offences

C) littering

D) an assault

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

C) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

D) How many radios are available for use at the premises

2 / 70

2) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

B) They can be used by management for marketing

C) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

D) They identify those who have been banned.

3 / 70

3) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A customer

B) A member of staff

C) A door supervisor

D) The manager

4 / 70

4) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) An offensive weapon

B) A harmful weapon

C) A personal weapon

D) A dangerous weapon

5 / 70

5) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

B) Make way for VIPs

C) Investigate each customer in detail.

D) Withhold information from customers

6 / 70

6) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Incidental

B) Forensic

C) Hearsay

D) Direct

7 / 70

7) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Grand Bodily Harm

B) Actual Bodily Harm

C) Common Assault

D) Grievous Bodily Harm

8 / 70

8) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Document of those responsible in your notebook

B) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

C) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

D) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

9 / 70

9) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

B) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

C) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

D) The day-to-day operation of the premises

10 / 70

10) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

B) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

C) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

D) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

11 / 70

11) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Gaming or gambling without a licence

B) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

C) Drug dealing

D) Solicitation

12 / 70

12) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

B) Flush it down the toilet

C) Dispose in the general waste bin

D) Seal it in a plastic bag

13 / 70

13) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

B) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

C) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

D) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

14 / 70

14) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Search anyway

B) Ring to the police

C) Reject their entry

D) Notify the manager

15 / 70

15) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

B) Trespass, robbery and theft

C) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

D) Assault, Theft, and Drug

16 / 70

16) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Get permission from the customer

B) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

C) Inform management that a search is in progress

D) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

17 / 70

17) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Forensic

B) Documentary

C) Hearsay

D) Circumstantial

18 / 70

18) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) Facial hair

B) The race of the individual

C) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

D) The group of friends around an individual

19 / 70

19) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

B) Call the emergency services

C) Destroy it yourself

D) Inform your supervisor

20 / 70

20) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

B) Follow the local seize and secure policy

C) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

D) Make all venues aware of the incident

21 / 70

21) The types of searches are:

A) General, Handpicked, Race related

B) Thorough, X-Ray, General

C) General, Random, Specific

D) National, Private, Public

22 / 70

22) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

B) They can be used by management for marketing

C) They identify those who have been banned

D) They help to record all customers’ faces

23 / 70

23) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Amphetamines

B) Cannabis

C) Heroin

D) Tranquilisers

24 / 70

24) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Confiscate musical equipment

B) Set new maximum occupancy limits

C) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

D) Power of closure

25 / 70

25) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

B) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

C) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

D) Call an ambulance

26 / 70

26) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

B) A Serious assault outside the venue

C) An argument between a couple inside the venue

D) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

27 / 70

27) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

B) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

C) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

D) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

28 / 70

28) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Licensing federation

B) Public safety regulation

C) Venue security measures

D) Licensing objectives

29 / 70

29) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Obtain person's permission

B) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

C) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

D) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

30 / 70

30) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Inform your manager

B) Record search details in your incident book

C) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

D) Carry search alone in a private area

31 / 70

31) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) A searchlight

B) An archway metal detector (AMD)

C) A plastic detector

D) A search wand

32 / 70

32) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) At all times to ensure safe queuing

B) When a problem is reported by someone

C) When barriers are moved by customers

D) When the numbers exceed 100

33 / 70

33) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

B) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

C) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

D) Could become a victim of a crime

34 / 70

34) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) Improve customers’ safety

B) minimize the bar queue time

C) promote customer to interact with each other

D) Show what a great venue you have

35 / 70

35) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Increase the likelihood of conflict

B) Increase customer numbers

C) Decrease customer numbers

D) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

36 / 70

36) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Roulette

B) Pool

C) Chess

D) Darts

37 / 70

37) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Approachable customers

B) Being monitored by CCTV

C) Understanding customers

D) Violent behaviour

38 / 70

38) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

B) Random individuals are searched

C) Specific individuals are searched

D) All individuals is searched

39 / 70

39) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) Enforcing parking fines

B) The revenue of the business you work for

C) Escorting customers home

D) Ensuring admission policy is followed

40 / 70

40) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

B) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

C) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

D) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

41 / 70

41) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Advertising venue theme nights

B) Promoting house rules

C) Writing the admission policy

D) Ensuring the premises remains full

42 / 70

42) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Contact the venue’s head office

B) Record the incident using a mobile phone

C) Contact the emergency service

D) Contact the licensing officer

43 / 70

43) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) Social Media outlets

B) National Threat Level information

C) By local MPs

D) Local Radio

44 / 70

44) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

B) It may help to reduce potential conflict

C) It helps customers to plan their evening

D) They may not like the drinks served inside

45 / 70

45) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Use of toilets

B) Loud music

C) Consumption of food

D) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

46 / 70

46) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) An incident occurring inside the venue

B) Drunk people outside the venue

C) Ejection of a customer

D) Ejection of a customer

47 / 70

47) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Help prevent complaints from local residents

B) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

C) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

D) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

48 / 70

48) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

C) How many radios are available for use at the premises

D) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

49 / 70

49) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Monitoring drink sales performance

B) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

C) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

D) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

50 / 70

50) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Burglary

B) Loot

C) Theft

D) Sabotage

51 / 70

51) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Criminal damage

B) Offensive behavior

C) Trespass

D) Unlawful entry

52 / 70

52) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Safety goggles

B) Gloves

C) Ear defenders

D) Face shield

53 / 70

53) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

B) When the venue has a large queue

C) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

D) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

54 / 70

54) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Grievous bodily harm

B) Trespass

C) Common assault

D) Rape

55 / 70

55) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class D

B) Class B

C) Class A

D) Class C

56 / 70

56) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) explore on the internet

B) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

C) Ask the venue’s manager

D) inqure a member of the bar staff

57 / 70

57) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

B) Keep customers entertained while waiting

C) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

D) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

58 / 70

58) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Inform the police of each event

B) Photograph customers on entry

C) Search individuals on entry

D) Ban bags at the venue

59 / 70

59) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A searchlight

B) An archway metal detector (AMD)

C) A search wand

D) A plastic detector

60 / 70

60) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) Only in block capital letters

B) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

C) Whilst witnessing an incident

D) After consulting with supervisors

61 / 70

61) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Incident report

B) Visitor log

C) Incident log

D) Incident questionnaire

62 / 70

62) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

B) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

C) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

D) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

63 / 70

63) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

B) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

C) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

D) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

64 / 70

64) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

B) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

C) A female taking selfies with a male

D) A group of females chatting with a group of males

65 / 70

65) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) Clinical Waste

B) In the broken glass bin

C) In the street refuse bin

D) In the regular trash container

66 / 70

66) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Unpredictable behavior

B) Falling sleep

C) Dilated pupils

D) Powder traces under the nose

67 / 70

67) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

B) 12-year prison sentence and fine

C) 20-year prison sentence

D) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

68 / 70

68) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

B) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

C) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

D) Seize the item and deny them to enter

69 / 70

69) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Nervousness

B) Drug use

C) Exposure to carbon monoxide

D) Fear

70 / 70

70) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Drug dealing

B) Drug use

C) Being aware

D) Being intoxicated

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

B) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

C) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

D) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

2 / 50

2) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

B) Kick the customer out without warning

C) Exert all available force

D) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

3 / 50

3) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Stand further away from the employee

B) Bully at them and tell jokes

C) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

D) Begin to use abusive personal language

4 / 50

4) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Capable

B) Assertive

C) Motivated

D) Patronised

5 / 50

5) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

B) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

C) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

D) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

6 / 50

6) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

C) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

D) The conflict will remain unresolved

7 / 50

7) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fear of retaliation

B) Ignoring the legal consequences

C) Being rude

D) Fighting back

8 / 50

8) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Reasonable

B) Less

C) Mandatory

D) Approachable

9 / 50

9) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

B) Their thought processes become more logical

C) Their hearing tunes into the threat

D) Their heartbeat decelerates

10 / 50

10) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Empathy

B) Frustration

C) Awareness

D) Assertiveness

11 / 50

11) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Mandatory

B) Suitable

C) Minimal

D) Reasonable

12 / 50

12) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

B) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

C) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

D) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

13 / 50

13) Empathy means being able to:

A) Share someone else's opinion

B) Ignore someone else's opinion

C) Understand another person’s point of view

D) Encourage another person’s perception

14 / 50

14) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

B) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

C) It minimizes the chances of a risk

D) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

15 / 50

15) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) Make a positive impression on your manager

B) To get increase in salary

C) To pick up trends

D) To get a promotion

16 / 50

16) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

B) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

D) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

17 / 50

17) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Persuasive communication

B) Concise communication

C) Poor communication

D) Effective communication

18 / 50

18) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Irrational and emotional

B) Rational and emotional

C) Rational and psychological

D) Rational and social

19 / 50

19) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

B) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

C) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

D) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

20 / 50

20) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

B) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

21 / 50

21) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

B) Being bossy towards the customer

C) Showing empathy towards the customer

D) By criticising the actions of the customer

22 / 50

22) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

B) Having strong personal values

C) Being unsure of what action is taken

D) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

23 / 50

23) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

B) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

C) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

D) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

24 / 50

24) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Appreciated

B) Comfortable

C) Нарру

D) Insulted

25 / 50

25) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Frustration

B) Violence

C) Patience

D) Assertiveness

26 / 50

26) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being kept waiting

B) Being fearful of the consequences

C) Not providing relevant information

D) Being disregarded

27 / 50

27) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

B) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

C) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

D) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

28 / 50

28) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak loudly

B) Speak aggressively

C) Speak calmly

D) Speak quickly

29 / 50

29) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Compromised

B) A win-win

C) A spin-off

D) Empathic

30 / 50

30) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) It empowers the customer to take charge

B) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

C) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

31 / 50

31) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) Will ignore being disciplined

B) May get disciplined

C) Will still do a nice job

D) might avoid injury

32 / 50

32) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Various clothes

B) Different eye colour

C) Diverse hair colour

D) Different cultures

33 / 50

33) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Hold until the employee moves

B) Try to talk their way out of the situation

C) Tell the manager

D) Try to force their way past the employee

34 / 50

34) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Being assertive towards the customer

B) Advising to the customer

C) Not listening to the customer

D) Speaking to the customer seriously

35 / 50

35) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

B) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

C) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

D) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

36 / 50

36) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Note down the instructions

B) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

C) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

D) Develop a rapport with the customer

37 / 50

37) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Loss of your employment

B) Have your driver's license suspended

C) An argument

D) The customer departing

38 / 50

38) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Victim Support Scheme

B) The manager

C) The Local Council

D) The lead security operative

39 / 50

39) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Social barrier

B) Physical barrier

C) Political barrier

D) Psychological barrier

40 / 50

40) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Child Line

B) Samaritans

C) Crime Stoppers

D) Victim Support

41 / 50

41) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) Any direction given is followed

B) The outcome is successful

C) They complain to management

D) Your opinion is heard

42 / 50

42) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Angry

C) Empowered

D) Motivated

43 / 50

43) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

B) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

C) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

D) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

44 / 50

44) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Dodging eye contact

B) only paying partial attention to the other person

C) gesturing with open palms

D) Facing the other person directly

45 / 50

45) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Being assertive

B) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

C) Being threatening

D) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

46 / 50

46) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Recognition

B) Humiliation

C) Motivation

D) Stimulus

47 / 50

47) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You cannot guarantee victory

B) You might be fired from your workplace

C) The customer might bring his friends

D) For the safety of yourself and others

48 / 50

48) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

B) Take one to another room to separate them

C) Force to stop an argument

D) Threaten to call the police

49 / 50

49) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will avoid being disciplined

B) May get disciplined

C) Can ignore injury

D) Will continue to perform well

50 / 50

50) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Shocked

B) Made to feel welcome

C) Loses face

D) Treated like a valued guest

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Improvised weapons being carried

B) Medical distress

C) Law enforcement activity

D) Self-destructive behavior

2 / 69

2) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Physical intervention is used before anything else

B) Physical intervention is illegal

C) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

D) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

3 / 69

3) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Handling the individual independently.

B) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

C) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

D) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

4 / 69

4) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

B) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

C) Gender identity of the person

D) Place of the intervention

5 / 69

5) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) An increased risk of harm

B) A pay increase

C) A promotion for all involved

D) An increase in venue insurance costs

6 / 69

6) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Within 72 hours of the incident

B) Whilst the witnesses are still present

C) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

D) As soon as practically possible

7 / 69

7) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should get a pay rise

B) Staff should get a warning

C) Staff should return to work immediately

D) Staff should be given support

8 / 69

8) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Low body temperature

B) Low blood pressure

C) Positional asphyxia

D) Calmness

9 / 69

9) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

B) Skillset of the subject

C) Method of restraint

D) Skillset of the door supervisor

10 / 69

10) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Taken into custody

B) Forced to leave the venue

C) Exposed to further injury or harm

D) Prohibited from entering the venue

11 / 69

11) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

B) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

C) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

D) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

12 / 69

12) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

B) Any restraint that impairs breathing

C) Calmly talking to customers

D) Not using physical restraints

13 / 69

13) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

B) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

C) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

D) Staff should not write anything down

14 / 69

14) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

B) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

C) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

D) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

15 / 69

15) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

B) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

C) Ignore any signs of medical issues

D) Hold them down until they calm down

16 / 69

16) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

B) Withdraw/De-escalate

C) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

D) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

17 / 69

17) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) What outfit the subject is wearing

B) The threat posted by the subject

C) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

D) The number of followers the subject has no social media

18 / 69

18) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Effective communication

B) Unnecessary force

C) Handcuffs

D) Martial arts

19 / 69

19) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

B) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

C) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

D) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

20 / 69

20) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Criminal prosecution of those involved

B) Suffering endured by the people involved.

C) Loss of wages of those involved

D) Advancement of the people concerned

21 / 69

21) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

B) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

C) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

D) Determine who is accountable for the incident

22 / 69

22) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) When the incident occurred

B) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

C) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

D) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

23 / 69

23) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Tactics to keep yourself safe

B) Use of handcuffs or ties

C) Conflict management skills

D) Techniques which isolate the individual

24 / 69

24) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Enhanced social media presence

B) Promotion to head door supervisor

C) Paying less

D) Civil litigation from the injured party

25 / 69

25) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

B) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

C) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

D) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

26 / 69

26) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

B) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

C) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

D) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

27 / 69

27) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Techniques which isolate the individual

B) Tactics to keep yourself safe

C) Use of handcuffs and ties

D) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

28 / 69

28) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) Respectable

B) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

C) Rational

D) Reasonable

29 / 69

29) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Equipped with weapons

B) Medical distress

C) Law enforcement presence

D) Self-inflicted injuries

30 / 69

30) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

B) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

C) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

D) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

31 / 69

31) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

B) Positional asphyxia

C) Lowered blood pressure

D) Lowered body temperature

32 / 69

32) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

B) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

C) Encourage secondary control alternatives

D) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

33 / 69

33) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) An inability to breathe

B) A lower heart rate

C) A lower body temperature

D) Unrestricted breathing

34 / 69

34) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) You are more vulnerable on the floor

B) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

C) You should always maintain an authoritative position

D) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

35 / 69

35) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

B) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

C) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

D) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

36 / 69

36) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

B) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

C) May lose interest in the physical intervention

D) May feel threatened by others

37 / 69

37) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Safeguard evidence

B) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

C) Get rid of any evidence

D) Gather statements from all witnesses

38 / 69

38) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

B) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

C) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

D) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

39 / 69

39) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

B) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

C) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

D) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

40 / 69

40) What does the word Static mean?

A) In a state ready to be physical

B) In a defensive state

C) Unchanging

D) In the right state

41 / 69

41) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

B) Decide who requires further training in restraint

C) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

D) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

42 / 69

42) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) What is the number of attendees

B) A taxi queue

C) That the individual is conscious and breathing

D) The time

43 / 69

43) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) Conflict management

B) The use of a weapon

C) The use of pepper spray

D) Control and restraint

44 / 69

44) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

B) The door supervisor should use communication skills

C) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

D) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

45 / 69

45) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

B) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

C) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

D) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

46 / 69

46) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

B) Call for help

C) Put the customer in the recovery position

D) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

47 / 69

47) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

B) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

C) Guidelines for restraining another person.

D) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

48 / 69

48) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

B) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

C) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

D) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

49 / 69

49) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Physical intervention is illegal

D) Physical intervention is used before anything else

50 / 69

50) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Promotes safety

B) Make more money at the venue

C) Is advertised

D) Could lose their license

51 / 69

51) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Mental health issues

B) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

C) Hypohydration

D) Hypothermia

52 / 69

52) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

B) Defensive skills are responsive

C) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

D) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

53 / 69

53) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Handcuffs

B) Physical aggression.

C) Verbal escalation

D) CCTV

54 / 69

54) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Being cold and calmly to touch

B) Bleeding from the skin

C) Having a regular pulse

D) Excessive Sweating

55 / 69

55) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

B) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

C) Chance of being uploaded to social media

D) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

56 / 69

56) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

B) Customer may become easier to deal with

C) Customer may become impatient

D) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

57 / 69

57) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

B) Legislation may change

C) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

D) All employers ask for references

58 / 69

58) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The persons age, size and weight

B) The person is drunk or on drugs

C) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

D) The person has stolen property hidden on them

59 / 69

59) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Face down (prone)

B) Face up (supine)

C) Standing restrictive restraint

D) Standing non- restrictive restraint

60 / 69

60) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

B) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

C) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

D) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

61 / 69

61) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could impair hearing

B) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

C) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

D) It could impair breathing

62 / 69

62) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

B) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

C) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

D) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

63 / 69

63) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) Prone Restraint

B) Viable safety restraint

C) 3-point restraint

D) Head lock

64 / 69

64) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Control and restraint

B) Use of self-defense weapon

C) Conflict management

D) Violence

65 / 69

65) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Low blood pressure

B) Tranquility

C) Low temperature

D) Unexpected or increase strength

66 / 69

66) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) A rise in venue insurance costs

B) An upgrade for all involved

C) An increased risk of harm

D) Increase in compensation

67 / 69

67) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Showing bizarre behaviour

B) Having a low pulse rate

C) Agreeing to requests

D) Having a low breathing rate

68 / 69

68) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) Legislation may change

B) All employers ask for it

C) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

D) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

69 / 69

69) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) Strength, and safety

B) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

C) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

D) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

Quick Links

Upcoming Training Courses

SIA Approved Security Training Course

Our Security Services

Our Construction Services

Forms & Submissions

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