Security Officer Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 1D
Module 2
Module 3

Module 1A

/100

Module 1A - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1A - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) If a suspicious package is discovered, the first action that should be taken is to:

A) Investigate it to see what's inside

B) Contact army bomb disposal officers

C) Another location

D) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

2 / 100

2) What are the reasons for security operatives having a clear understanding of fire evacuation procedures?

A) So that they can provide effective assistance in the event of an emergency

B) To help them to judge whether the evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly

C) To allow them to be the first to reach the assembly point and take a roll call

D) To enable them to re-enter the premises to search for anyone who is missing

3 / 100

3) What element from the following can be eliminated to disrupt the fire triangle?

A) Fuel

B) Smoke

C) Powder

D) Foam

4 / 100

4) What color shade of a sign indicate safe conditions?

A) Green

B) Yellow

C) Blue

D) Red

5 / 100

5) Which of the following is an element that does not pose a risk in the context of working alone?

A) Lack of support

B) Lack of communication

C) Lack of conversation

D) Lack of welfare facilities

6 / 100

6) In a crisis, people may get scared and rush toward tight exits. This is likely to lead to:

A) Crushing

B) Fight or Flight

C) Surging

D) Shivering

7 / 100

7) The private security industry primarily exists to safeguard:

A) Boundaries

B) Possessions

C) Life

D) Privacy

8 / 100

8) When there's an urgent situation, some individuals might not want to go. This is known as:

A) Freezing

B) Surging

C) Denial

D) Flight

9 / 100

9) Which of the following is not likely to be completing by a security operative?

A) Search log

B) Training record

C) Log of keys

D) Sign-in book for visitors

10 / 100

10) Assignment instructions give you directions on what to do.

A) On the site’s roles and duties

B) For only the managers of a site

C) That enable security officers to learn about staff

D) Regarding insurance

11 / 100

11) According to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, all premises should be:

A) Checked for noise pollution every 6 months

B) Inspected for damp every 3 months

C) Clean and safe

D) Secure and protected

12 / 100

12) A benefit of good teamwork is that it:

A) Escalate pay

B) Cut down the need for assignment instructions

C) Lowers the requirement for risk assessments

D) Promotes safety

13 / 100

13) What is the full form of AI?

A) Assignment Instructions

B) Augmented Intelligence

C) Argument Incitement

D) Artificial Intel

14 / 100

14) Seeking assistance and support in the aftermath of an incident is essential

A) Enable the likelihood of mental health issues

B) Reduces the chances of developing emotional problems

C) Is mandated by employment law

D) Is necessity of health and safety

15 / 100

15) After someone is arrested, the proof should be:

A) In proportion

B) Devastated

C) Sanitized

D) Preserved

16 / 100

16) Non-verbal communication can involve:

A) Technical language

B) Voicemails

C) Facial expression

D) Tone of voice

17 / 100

17) Which of the following is an outcome of equal opportunities legislation in the workplace?

A) Increased pay for men

B) Fewer opportunities for men

C) Shorter work hours for women

D) Standardised pay scales

18 / 100

18) Marauding terror attacks include the use of:

A) Vehicles as a weapon

B) Improvised explosive devices

C) Chemicals

D) Firearms

19 / 100

19) The key thing in a fire procedure that security staff should be aware of is:

A) The location of fire exits and assembly points

B) How to ensure that alarms are working properly

C) How to maintain fire extinguishers in good working order

D) The names of the fire marshals in the building

20 / 100

20) A situation that is right away dangerous to life or property is called:

A) A close call

B) An emergency

C) An occurrence

D) A danger

21 / 100

21) If there is a security danger, a security officer should:

A) Keep the emergency services updated every hour on the situation

B) Maintain organised search procedures

C) Inform the local MP of the security threat

D) Cut back on patrols to allow operatives to focus on other priorities

22 / 100

22) A case of verbal communication can be exemplified by:

A) Electronic message sent in Morse code

B) Log-book entry

C) Textual message on cellular phone

D) Voicemail message

23 / 100

23) What is the abbreviation ABH short for?

A) Actual Bodily Harm

B) Actual Bad Hurt

C) Actual Bad Harm

D) Actual Body Hurt

24 / 100

24) Why should we only make an arrest when there's no other option left?

A) Because the police officers tend to prefer making arrests themselves

B) Because the security operative would have to complete an incident report

C) Because the personal safety of a security operative can be put at risk

D) Because the manager of the premises would have to ensure the safety and security of the detained person

25 / 100

25) To make sure private information stays safe, a security worker needs to:

A) Publish work-related information on social media

B) Talk about work-related topics in a place where others can hear you

C) Maintain confidentiality

D) Talk to your family about work-related problems

26 / 100

26) Who should a security officer call first for a small first-aid problem?

A) NHS Direct

B) A qualified first-aider

C) The health and safety manager

D) The supervisor

27 / 100

27) The right way to make an arrest is to:

A) Detain the individual, call the police and explain the reason for the arrest.

B) Contact the police, detain the individual and explain the reason for the arrest

C) Detain the individual, explain the reason for the arrest and call the police

D) Explain the reason for the arrest, detain the individual and call the police

28 / 100

28) A key objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Allow security companies to tender for public contracts

B) To regulate the private security industry, reduce crime and raise standards within the industry

C) Stop police involvement in all security matters

D) Provide detailed information on staff pay and condition

29 / 100

29) What are some of the ways that sexual predators may behave?

A) Being muscular

B) Closely watching vulnerable people

C) Texting someone

D) Preferring own company

30 / 100

30) Which of the following behaviours is most likely to indicate a sexual predator?

A) A solo performer on the dance floor

B) A drunk person leaving with a group of intoxicated people.

C) A person stumbling and staggering around the venue

D) A heavily intoxicated person leaving with s sober person.

31 / 100

31) Following involvement in a violent incident, it would be most advantageous for a staff member to seek support by:

A) Posting details of the incident on social media

B) Celebrating with friends

C) Talking through the incident with colleagues

D) Sending a letter to the local MP

32 / 100

32) Which of these things would be considered an urgent situation?

A) Sunstroke

B) Ankle sprain

C) Heart attack

D) Crushed finger

33 / 100

33) What is the meaning of the word "theft"?

A) Stealing something to later return it

B) Taking something without consent with no intention of returning it

C) Threatening to take something from someone

D) Stealing using Force

34 / 100

34) Which of the following is performed on a daily basis?

A) Documentation of an incident

B) Lost and found report

C) Handover report

D) Accident Record

35 / 100

35) One of the guiding principles of providing excellent customer service is to:

A) Create a rapport with the customer as soon as possible

B) Instruct the customer to follow the prescribed steps

C) Always consider the organization's perspective

D) Always question the customer’s viewpoint

36 / 100

36) Which of the following is the best definition of an ‘occurrence’?

A) Something that has happened

B) Risk of something happening

C) Something that may happen

D) Chance of happening something

37 / 100

37) One of the primary motivations for documenting notes during or shortly after an incident is due to:

A) It saves colleagues the hassle of writing a report later in the shift

B) It is unlikely that the operator will remember to write a report later

C) The details recorded by the operator are more likely to be accurate

D) The supervisor must review the incident immediately afterwards

38 / 100

38) Which of the following is an approach that does not contribute to keeping personal information secure?"

A) Meeting the legal obligations of data protection legislation

B) Keeping information secret

C) Discussing work issues outside the workplace

D) Following the rules and regulations of the organization

39 / 100

39) What is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It is accessible to the general public at any time

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It automatically restricts footage access for certain individuals

D) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

40 / 100

40) As per the behavioral standards established by the Security Industry Authority (SIA), a security operative is required to:

A) Wear comfortable clothes

B) Use moderate language

C) Be physically strong

D) Be laid-back

41 / 100

41) Security operatives must look after vulnerable people in order to:

A) Prevent them from becoming victims of crime

B) Stop the police from coming to the premises

C) Stop them from being arrested

D) Save their employer’s reputation

42 / 100

42) The security operator must write down clear and thorough notes about what happened.

A) At the time or as soon as practicable

B) At any time as long as it is before the end of the shift

C) When the operator has some extra time

D) Within the next 24 hours

43 / 100

43) The most accurate definition of the threat level 'substantial' is that an attack is:

A) Unexpected

B) Likely

C) Assured

D) Unlikely

44 / 100

44) An employee should think about conflicts in order to:

A) Assess the disciplinary risk

B) Help deal with future incidents more effectively

C) Determine whether they have chosen the right career

D) Assess the prosecution risk

45 / 100

45) What is a critical factor in managing crowd control during an emergency?

A) Shout at customers

B) Do nothing

C) Stay calm and take charge

D) Use force to move people

46 / 100

46) Which of the following is a guiding principle of the Data Protection Act 2018?

A) Personal data shall be subject to unlimited processing

B) Personal date shall not be kept for longer than is necessary

C) Personal data shall be used for marketing purposes

D) Personal data shall be freely transferred abroad

47 / 100

47) During a security alert, a security operative may be required to:

A) Notify the fire and ambulance service that they may be needed soon

B) Arrange for trained first – aid staff to be available

C) Increase high-visibility patrols

D) Tell to the local council

48 / 100

48) Among these options, what is not a good enough reason to arrest someone?

A) Refusing a search

B) Destroying property

C) Causing injury to other

D) Causing injury to themselves

49 / 100

49) What are the key things to keep in mind when dealing with customer needs?

A) Customers are always wrong

B) Try and impress the customers who are better looking

C) Make a good first impression

D) We should not talk to customers

50 / 100

50) A main objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) Eliminate criminal elements from the industry

C) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) Decrease the number of security personnel in the industry

51 / 100

51) What is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Seek out a crowded place

B) Fight or flight

C) Freeze and surrender

D) Walk calmly away

52 / 100

52) If something is proven to be suspicious, a security worker must:

A) Evacuate using the safety exit

B) Do not leave your position until the emergency services arrive

C) Do not move until the bomb squad arrive

D) Photograph the suspicious object for the disposal experts

53 / 100

53) Prohibition signs are:

A) Blue and white

B) Green and white

C) Red and white

D) Yellow and black

54 / 100

54) Which of the following roles is not considered a licensed security role?

A) Event steward

B) Door Supervisor

C) Cash and valuables in transit operative

D) Close protection operative

55 / 100

55) What is an instance of a workplace hazard?

A) Staircase

B) Correctly stored materials

C) Unblocked fire exits

D) Closed fire doors

56 / 100

56) The duty of verifying that an area is free from obstructions during a fire alarm lies with:

A) Local fire and rescue officer

B) Building’s fire marshal

C) Company human resources manager

D) Security officer in charge

57 / 100

57) What is the initial step in creating a 5-part statement?

A) Introduction

B) Close the statement

C) Set the scene

D) Chronological account

58 / 100

58) What kind of arrest can a security worker perform?

A) Citizen’s arrest

B) Taking into custody with a warrant

C) Police take into custody

D) Security industry arrest

59 / 100

59) What is the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To submit customer service suggestions

B) To report lost goods to law enforcement

C) To submit complaints against security personnel

D) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

60 / 100

60) What is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Increased individual recognition

B) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

C) Increased competition among colleagues

D) Reduced need for security staff

61 / 100

61) What is a drawback or constraint associated with Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV)?

A) Small camera lens

B) Widespread camera monitoring

C) Large camera lens

D) Poor camera coverage

62 / 100

62) What should you do after a small accident happens at work?

A) A certified first aider should always be present

B) An ambulance should always be called

C) An accident book should be completed

D) Emergency medical supplies should be collected

63 / 100

63) What are the risks faced by working alone?

A) Injuries/Illness that may require medical attention

B) Feeling Drowsy

C) Nothing

D) Becoming bored

64 / 100

64) What are the three things needed for a fire to happen?

A) Air, Oxygen and fuel

B) Oxygen, Fuel and a heat source

C) A heat source, air and oxygen

D) A heat source, paper and wood.

65 / 100

65) What is the preferred ink color for record keeping?

A) Red

B) Blue

C) Green

D) Black

66 / 100

66) What are the three factors of the fire triangle?

A) Harmful, Fire, Oxygen

B) Heat, Oxygen, Fire

C) Heat, Food, Oxygen

D) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen

67 / 100

67) A danger of working alone in the private security field is:

A) Maintaining regular communication with the supervisor

B) Having CCTV as a backup plan in case of other security measures failing

C) Being isolated and having to rely on technology for back up

D) Teamwork challenges

68 / 100

68) It is important for an employee to discuss with colleagues how an incident was successfully resolved as:

A) The employee can know their colleagues’ lack of experience

B) It prohibits the employer from criticizing the incident response

C) It allows colleagues to learn from an example of best practice

D) It enables the employee to finish the written report

69 / 100

69) From the following, the best method of deterring anti – social behaviour is to carry out:

A) Covert patrols

B) Lockdown patrols

C) High-profile patrols

D) Patrols at the same time every day

70 / 100

70) The most likely consequence of invacuation is that:

A) The area is protected

B) There is a physical barrier between you and the threat

C) People are placed directly in risk

D) There are limited escape routes

71 / 100

71) Upon detecting a fire, the initial step a security operative should take is to:

A) Stay calm and wait for help to arrive

B) Start evacuating the premises

C) Raise the alarm

D) Move away from the fire

72 / 100

72) If someone requires treatment for a minor injury, a security operative should first contact:

A) Their supervisor

B) A paramedic

C) A doctor

D) A first-aider

73 / 100

73) An indicator of possible abuse is:

A) Insecurity

B) Assurance

C) Arrogance

D) Assertiveness

74 / 100

74) The goal of assignment instructions is to offer:

A) Staff details

B) Guidelines for site managers only

C) Insurance policy information

D) Guidelines about site duties and roles

75 / 100

75) According to the SIA’s standards for behaviour for security operatives’, a security operative should be:

A) Computer literate

B) Professional

C) Physically strong

D) Open to working

76 / 100

76) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Online gaming forums

B) Colleagues and management

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Social media platforms

77 / 100

77) Which of the following is a non-criminal case?

A) Fraud

B) Trespass

C) Theft

D) Robery

78 / 100

78) When you go to court to share information, the most vital thing is that you are:

A) On-time

B) Polite

C) Wearing clothes appropriately

D) Prepared

79 / 100

79) A job done by a fire marshal is:

A) Checking that fire doors are unobstructed

B) Counting all staff entering the building

C) Ensure that fire extinguishers are replenished when necessary

D) Enabling people to exit the building in the event of a fire

80 / 100

80) What is the kind of permanent setup that has pipes with heads that turn on to stop a fire and keep it from spreading?

A) Integrated hose reel

B) Riser

C) Flooding System

D) Sprinkler

81 / 100

81) The primary job of the Security Industry Authority (SIA) is to:

A) Manage business owner's conduct

B) Uphold the law and protect the public in the absence of police

C) Regulate local taxi drivers by licensing

D) License some roles within the private security industry

82 / 100

82) When someone with disabilities asks for help, it's important to follow the company rules because:

A) They are a customer needing assistance

B) You may be reported if you do not

C) You may be being watched

D) They may be testing my customer service skills

83 / 100

83) The 1974 Health and Safety at Work Act is for:

A) Both employers and employees

B) Companies only

C) Employees only

D) Employers only

84 / 100

84) A security officer who is making an arrest is using the authority described in:

A) A common law

B) Health and safety law

C) Personal safety law

D) Data protection law

85 / 100

85) The most important explanation of 'run, hide, and tell' for a security worker is to get away.

A) Shielding others from danger, while remaining behind

B) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

C) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

D) The aggressors retreating, deserting everyone else

86 / 100

86) The probability of a fire occurring is likely decreased by:

A) Keeping waste close to public spaces

B) Getting appliances inspected every few years

C) Implementing a comprehensive recycling system

D) Having good housekeeping practices

87 / 100

87) A workplace danger is probably:

A) A dangerous substance

B) Air cooling

C) Un heatedness

D) Vivid lighting

88 / 100

88) Signs of suspicious activity may be indicated by:

A) A group of people dressed in bizarre clothing

B) A group of men standing outside a railway station late at night

C) A social gathering outside a bar

D) People walking around a building watching CCTV camera

89 / 100

89) Somebody shrugging their shoulders is an example of:

A) Oral communication

B) Non-verbal communication

C) Verbal communication

D) Written communication

90 / 100

90) For a security operative, the most appropriate interpretation of the term 'run, hide, and tell' is to evacuate:

A) The attackers, leaving all others behind

B) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

C) Others from the danger, while staying behind

D) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

91 / 100

91) A fire involving burning petrol would be categorized as what type of fire?

A) Class A

B) Class B

C) Class C

D) Class D

92 / 100

92) What is the first action that a security operative should take upon discovering a fire?

A) Raise the alarm!

B) Call the emergency services

C) Open all doors and windows

D) Tackle the fire with the appropriate extinguisher

93 / 100

93) One goal of the Private Security Industry Act is to:

A) Provide a means of hiring security operatives

B) Make sure security guards are first-aid certified

C) Raise standards within the security industry

D) Improve conviction rates in the security industry

94 / 100

94) If a security operative is made aware of a vulnerable female following a domestic argument, the most appropriate action to take is to contact:

A) The local council

B) The local police station

C) The local office of the Samaritans

D) St John Ambulance

95 / 100

95) What does the term "arrest" mean?

A) To question someone about a crime

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To take away someone's freedom

D) To escort someone to safety

96 / 100

96) If someone is lying on the ground and looks like they touched an electrical cable while unconscious, the first thing to do is:

A) Drape a blanket over them to keep them warm

B) Start first-aid treatment immediately

C) Shake them hard

D) Turn off the power

97 / 100

97) What is most likely an indicator of suspicious activity?

A) People trying to avoid being seen on CCTV

B) Someone clicking photographs of their friends

C) An individual jogging around a structure

D) People inquiring about directions

98 / 100

98) If a suspicious package is discovered, the initial response that should be undertaken is to:

A) Contact army bomb disposal officers

B) Inspect it and try to figure out what is inside

C) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

D) the appropriate place for this discussion

99 / 100

99) The aim of establishing effective evacuation procedures is to:

A) Help to ensure the safety of yourself and others

B) Ensure that the fire service can easily access the venue

C) Ensure everyone goes to the same fire assembly point

D) Optimize fire marshals' search time

100 / 100

100) The best thing about communicating well while taking care of customers is that it:

A) Ensures all problems are solved

B) Ensure compliance by aggressors

C) Reduces incidents of conflict

D) Makes the other person's life easier

Your score is

The average score is 72%

Module 1B

/100

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Increased motivation to perform better

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Enhanced team dynamics

D) Optimized focus on work projects

2 / 100

2) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Accessed only by authorized personnel

B) Deleted after one month

C) Shared on social media for public awareness

D) Reviewed by any staff member

3 / 100

3) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is possible but not likely

B) When it is unlikely but still possible

C) When it is almost certain to happen

D) When it is highly improbable

4 / 100

4) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

B) Limiting communication between security teams

C) Promoting competition among local businesses

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

5 / 100

5) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

B) Increased exposure to potential violence

C) Reduced access to basic health support

D) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

6 / 100

6) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

D) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

7 / 100

7) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A search register

B) A visitor log

C) A duty sheet

D) An accident report

8 / 100

8) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

B) Photograph it and then throw it away

C) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

D) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

9 / 100

9) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

10 / 100

10) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Recording shift instructions and break durations

C) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

11 / 100

11) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When arranging office furniture

B) When interacting with hostile customers

C) When discussing personal matters outside of work

D) When scheduling breaks for security staff

12 / 100

12) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

B) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

C) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

13 / 100

13) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It enables individuals to work independently

B) It increases individual accountability

C) It promotes communication and collaboration

D) It encourages competition among colleagues

14 / 100

14) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It removes the need to contact emergency services

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

15 / 100

15) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

B) To avoid contact with any key personnel

C) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

16 / 100

16) What does the term "arrest" generally mean?

A) To question someone about a crime

B) To take away someone's liberty

C) To inform someone of their rights

D) To escort someone to safety

17 / 100

17) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

B) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

18 / 100

18) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

B) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

D) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

19 / 100

19) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Having a clear sense of direction

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

20 / 100

20) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Providing immediate medical attention

B) Clear and concise communication

C) Offering physical assistance

D) Removing them from the premises

21 / 100

21) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) A package left unattended

22 / 100

22) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Alert the appropriate emergency services

B) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

C) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

D) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

23 / 100

23) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

C) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

D) To gather information about the offense

24 / 100

24) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

B) Only document it if they require medical treatment

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Report the injury to their employer

25 / 100

25) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Regulating the security industry through licensing

B) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

C) Offering financial support to security contractors

D) Training security staff for private companies

26 / 100

26) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of first aid kits

27 / 100

27) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

B) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

C) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

28 / 100

28) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

B) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

C) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

D) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

29 / 100

29) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

B) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Notify the victim's family before taking action

30 / 100

30) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) A heart attack

C) A slip on a wet floor

D) An epileptic seizure

31 / 100

31) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To improve employee productivity and performance

B) To estimate costs for safety equipment

C) To limit employee movement around the premises

D) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

32 / 100

32) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

B) Increasing entry fees to control access

C) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

D) Hosting private social events for the community

33 / 100

33) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) State the total number of visitors

B) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

C) Recount only the parts that seem important

D) List the names of staff present

34 / 100

34) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) Parking offenses

B) Littering

C) A noise complaint

D) An assault

35 / 100

35) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

B) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

C) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

D) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

36 / 100

36) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To show authority and control over the situation

B) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

37 / 100

37) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

C) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

D) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

38 / 100

38) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

B) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

C) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

D) Lift the load using the back muscles

39 / 100

39) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Online gaming communities

B) Social media platforms

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Colleagues and management

40 / 100

40) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Indifference

B) Dishonesty

C) Aggression

D) Integrity

41 / 100

41) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

B) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

C) Requesting assistance with directions

D) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

42 / 100

42) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

B) Taking part in group activities with friends

C) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

D) Directing security to a distressed individual

43 / 100

43) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

C) Training employees in fire safety procedures

D) Providing first aid to injured staff

44 / 100

44) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

C) To provide contact details for medical services

D) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

45 / 100

45) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

B) Check the building for any missing people

C) Proceed to the assembly point

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

46 / 100

46) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

B) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

47 / 100

47) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It increases individual recognition

B) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

C) It means fewer security staff are needed

D) It leads to more competition among staff

48 / 100

48) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Searching for a crowded area

B) Freezing and surrendering

C) Fight or flight

D) Calmly walking away

49 / 100

49) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

B) Are an employee running late for a meeting

C) Might be conducting suspicious activities

D) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

50 / 100

50) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

51 / 100

51) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) Listening to a colleague's opinion

B) A notice posted on a door

C) A security operative speaking to a customer

D) A facial expression showing confusion

52 / 100

52) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

53 / 100

53) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

54 / 100

54) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Have no special powers of arrest

55 / 100

55) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

56 / 100

56) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

B) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

C) Something that might cause occasional distractions

D) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

57 / 100

57) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Dress code policies

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Potential promotions within the company

D) Employee social gatherings outside work

58 / 100

58) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

B) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

C) Call their superior before taking any actions

D) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

59 / 100

59) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Informing someone of their legal rights

B) Depriving someone of their freedom

C) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

D) Guiding someone to a safe place

60 / 100

60) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A colleague asking for help with a task

C) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

D) A manager requesting information

61 / 100

61) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

62 / 100

62) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Immediately evacuate the building

B) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

C) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

D) Activate the fire alarm

63 / 100

63) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

B) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

C) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

D) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

64 / 100

64) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is extremely unlikely

C) An attack is possible but unlikely

D) An attack is likely

65 / 100

65) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Using hand gestures

B) Making a phone call

C) Reading a text message aloud

D) Speaking clearly to someone

66 / 100

66) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

B) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

C) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

D) Common illnesses among employees

67 / 100

67) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

B) The state brings the cases against individuals

C) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

D) Local councils handle all the cases

68 / 100

68) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) Promote high standards within the industry

C) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) Guarantee low prices for security services

69 / 100

69) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) An individual who appears disoriented

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

70 / 100

70) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) An individual stealing sensitive information

B) Use of firearms

C) Hacking into a company's computer systems

D) Release of dangerous substances

71 / 100

71) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Adding more oxygen

B) Removing the fuel

C) Adding more heat

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

72 / 100

72) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) Instructions from colleagues

C) Personal preferences for handling situations

D) SIA standards and the company's established values

73 / 100

73) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

B) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

C) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

D) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

74 / 100

74) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

B) Deny there's any problem

C) Ignore their complaints directly

D) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

75 / 100

75) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Providing legal representation to businesses

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

76 / 100

76) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

B) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

77 / 100

77) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

D) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

78 / 100

78) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

B) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

C) To submit complaints against security personnel

D) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

79 / 100

79) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

B) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

C) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

80 / 100

80) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To improve the reputation of the venue

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To comply with legal requirements

81 / 100

81) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

B) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

C) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

D) To avoid supporting each individual customer

82 / 100

82) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

C) To avoid potential liability for future issues

D) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

83 / 100

83) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Writing a polite email

B) Sending a text message

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Smiling or frowning

84 / 100

84) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

B) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

C) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

D) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

85 / 100

85) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

B) Planning out the route to the venue

C) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

D) Reviewing old criminal offenses

86 / 100

86) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

B) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

87 / 100

87) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking in an aggressive tone

B) Writing down instructions

C) Speaking calmly

D) Being confrontational

88 / 100

88) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Positive self-esteem

B) Changes in behavior

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Consistent injuries

89 / 100

89) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

C) To avoid complaints from individuals

D) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

90 / 100

90) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

C) Contact the transport's customer service team

D) Directly confront the individual

91 / 100

91) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

92 / 100

92) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

B) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

C) Engaging the person with professional customer service

D) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

93 / 100

93) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Verbal warning from their employer

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Temporary suspension from their job

94 / 100

94) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To review an incident but take no reflective action

B) To completely overlook the incident and move on

C) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

D) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

95 / 100

95) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Conducting highly visible patrols

B) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) Ignoring minor incidents

96 / 100

96) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

B) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

C) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

97 / 100

97) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Vehicle immobilizer

B) Maintenance person

C) Customer support agent

D) Personal trainer

98 / 100

98) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

B) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

C) By providing only general instructions without specific details

D) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

99 / 100

99) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) May result in increased stress for the security operative

B) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

D) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

100 / 100

100) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Having a discussion with a family member

Your score is

The average score is 66%

Module 1C

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

2 / 92

2) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Notify the victim's family before taking action

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

3 / 92

3) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Immediately search the individual

B) Detain the individual

C) Proceed to question the individual

D) Escort the individual off the premises

4 / 92

4) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It increases risks for both staff and the public

C) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

D) It reduces the need for training and oversight

5 / 92

5) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

6 / 92

6) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Improving team morale

B) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

C) Preparing to use physical restraints

D) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

7 / 92

7) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of all staff present

B) State the total number of visitors

C) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

D) Recount only the seemingly important parts

8 / 92

8) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

B) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

C) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

9 / 92

9) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

B) Limited access to basic health support.

C) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

D) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

10 / 92

10) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Possible but unlikely

B) Unlikely but conceivable

C) Nearly certain

D) Highly improbable

11 / 92

11) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Photographed and then discarded

B) Preserved and handed over to the police

C) Disposed of and logged

D) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

12 / 92

12) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When planning breaks for security staff

D) When managing office furniture layout

13 / 92

13) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A software update on a laptop

C) A heart attack

D) A slip on a wet floor

14 / 92

14) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Breach of contract

B) Assault

C) Burglary

D) Murder

15 / 92

15) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

C) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

16 / 92

16) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

C) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

D) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

17 / 92

17) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

B) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

C) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

D) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

18 / 92

18) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Samaritans

B) Trade unions

C) The local community center

D) Advice Citizens Bureau

19 / 92

19) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual responsibility

B) It fosters communication and cooperation

C) It allows individuals to work in isolation

D) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

20 / 92

20) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

B) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

C) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

D) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

21 / 92

21) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

B) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

C) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

D) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

22 / 92

22) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

B) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

C) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

D) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

23 / 92

23) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

B) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

C) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

24 / 92

24) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Avoid communication with their legal representative

B) Wait until the last minute to arrive

C) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

D) Review their statement and the relevant case details

25 / 92

25) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

B) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

C) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

D) Inform a manager and record the incident.

26 / 92

26) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Booking a taxi for the individual

B) Using local support organizations

C) Requesting assistance from the police

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

27 / 92

27) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Try to administer first aid without training

B) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

28 / 92

28) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

C) To question the suspect about the offense

D) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

29 / 92

29) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Financial bonuses

B) Effective practices

C) Good team-building activities

D) New opportunities for equipment

30 / 92

30) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Participation in team-building activities

B) Allocation of lunch breaks

C) Access to company resources

D) Compensation and employee benefits

31 / 92

31) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) Personal preferences in handling situations

C) SIA standards and the company's values

D) Instructions from colleagues

32 / 92

32) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Water, heat, and oxygen

B) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

C) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

D) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

33 / 92

33) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

B) A red circle with a line through it

C) A blue square with a cross

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

34 / 92

34) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual who appears disoriented

D) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

35 / 92

35) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Local councils manage all cases

B) Private individuals initiate cases in court

C) The state brings charges against individuals

D) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

36 / 92

36) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Recruiting new security officers

B) A security benefits scheme for employees

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) The approved contractor scheme

37 / 92

37) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A manager requesting information

B) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A colleague seeking help with a task

38 / 92

38) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Reviewed by any staff member

B) Deleted after one month

C) Accessible only by authorized personnel

D) Shared on social media for awareness

39 / 92

39) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Ensuring security personnel leave first

B) Blocking access to all staircases

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

40 / 92

40) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

B) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

C) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

D) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

41 / 92

41) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Writing a polite email

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Sending a text message

D) Smiling or frowning

42 / 92

42) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

B) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

43 / 92

43) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

B) Denying that there is any issue

C) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

D) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

44 / 92

44) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Providing legal representation to businesses

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Managing public relations for private companies

45 / 92

45) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

B) Any previous self-protection training they had

C) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

D) What they observed and their names

46 / 92

46) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The release of hazardous substances.

B) The use of firearms.

C) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

D) Theft of sensitive information.

47 / 92

47) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of hazardous materials

C) The location of first aid kits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

48 / 92

48) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Check the building for any missing people

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

49 / 92

49) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Asking security staff for directions

D) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

50 / 92

50) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Call the transport's customer service team

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Only report it if a crime occurs

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

51 / 92

51) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

B) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

C) A child playing outdoors with friends

D) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

52 / 92

52) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

B) It prevents involvement from local authorities

C) It ensures no one will challenge actions

D) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

53 / 92

53) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Being under the influence of alcohol

54 / 92

54) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Office receptionist

B) Manned Guarding

C) Delivery driver

D) Private investigator

55 / 92

55) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

B) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

C) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

D) Reducing communication between team members

56 / 92

56) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Offering aid to people in distress

B) Guiding security towards a distressed person

C) Closely observing and tracking individuals

D) Engaging in group activities with friends

57 / 92

57) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

B) Assisting a lost individual

C) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

D) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

58 / 92

58) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It eliminates the need for other security measures

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It removes the need to call emergency services

59 / 92

59) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To avoid potential liability for issues

C) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

D) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

60 / 92

60) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

B) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

C) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

D) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

61 / 92

61) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class D

B) Class F

C) Class B

D) Class A

62 / 92

62) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

B) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

63 / 92

63) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

B) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

C) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

D) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

64 / 92

64) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break times

B) Documenting visitor logs

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting found items

65 / 92

65) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

D) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

66 / 92

66) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Providing written instructions.

B) Being argumentative.

C) Speaking in a calm manner.

D) Using an aggressive tone.

67 / 92

67) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

B) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

C) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

D) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

68 / 92

68) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 200 meters.

B) Approximately 100 meters.

C) Approximately 400 meters.

D) Approximately 300 meters.

69 / 92

69) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Wet chemical

B) CO2 Gas

C) Water

D) Foam

70 / 92

70) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) A verbal warning from their employer

71 / 92

71) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To avoid attending required safety training.

B) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

C) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

D) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

72 / 92

72) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Water

B) Sprinkler system

C) Fire hose

D) Fire blanket

73 / 92

73) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

74 / 92

74) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To help them avoid discussing the incident

C) To review an incident without taking reflective action

D) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

75 / 92

75) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving butane gas

B) A fire involving petrol or paint

C) A fire involving hot cooking oils

D) A fire involving wood or rubber

76 / 92

76) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

B) Cases of common colds among employees

C) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

D) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

77 / 92

77) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

B) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

C) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

D) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

78 / 92

78) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Sound the alarm

C) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

D) Stop and search for the fire's source

79 / 92

79) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

B) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

C) To immediately leave the scene

D) To inform the media about the arrest

80 / 92

80) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

B) Increasing entry fees for access control

C) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

D) Organizing private gatherings within the community

81 / 92

81) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Preventing interactions with the public

B) High-visibility patrols

C) Ignoring minor incidents

D) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

82 / 92

82) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It cannot record any criminal activities

B) It can only be used indoors

C) It can only be used outdoors

D) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

83 / 92

83) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

B) To reduce security visibility to the public

C) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

D) To avoid any staff interactions

84 / 92

84) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A water leak

B) A gas leak

C) A fire

D) A power outage

85 / 92

85) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

B) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

C) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

D) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

86 / 92

86) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Dress code policies

B) Employee social gatherings outside of work

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Potential promotions within the company

87 / 92

87) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

B) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

C) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

D) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

88 / 92

88) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Confirm

B) Control

C) Clear

D) Conclusion

89 / 92

89) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Investigating the cause before taking action.

B) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

C) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

D) Contacting emergency services.

90 / 92

90) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

B) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Have no special powers of arrest

91 / 92

91) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

B) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

C) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

D) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

92 / 92

92) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Sound the alarm

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1D

/72

SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI

Principles of Working in the Private Security Industry -MCQ

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 72

1) Which of the following is an indicator of predatory behaviour?

A) Clearly observing and monitoring individuals

B) Directing a security to a distressed individual

C) Taking part in group activities with friends

D) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

2 / 72

2) What elements must be present for a fire to exist?

A) Heat, carbon dioxide and water

B) Water, heat and oxygen

C) Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide

D) Oxygen, fuel and heat

3 / 72

3) Which of the following is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

B) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

C) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

D) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

4 / 72

4) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can help convey emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Writing a polite email to someone

C) Sending a text message

D) Using hand signals to direct someone

5 / 72

5) Which of the following roles requires an up to date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Office receptionist

B) Delivery driver

C) Private Investigator

D) Manned Guarding

6 / 72

6) To maintain a safe environment, security operatives should inspect their equipment (e.g., radios, torches) to ensure they are:

A) the latest model on the market

B) easily concealable from the public

C) fully functional and correctly maintained

D) used only by one person during a shift

7 / 72

7) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To aid them in avoiding discussions on the incident

B) To overlook the incident completely and move on

C) To look back on an incident but take no reflective action

D) To assess any actions and to reflect on an incident

8 / 72

8) Security operatives must understand the scope of the CCTVs cover to:

A) provide unrestricted access to all employees

B) make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

C) ensure CCTV is used as the sole security measure

D) be aware of blind spots that CCTV may not see

9 / 72

9) Which of the following is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Increased competition among colleagues

B) Reduced number of security staff needed

C) Increased individual recognition

D) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

10 / 72

10) Evaluating security incidents is key to recognising:

A) good team building activities

B) new opportunities for equipment

C) financial bonuses

D) good practices

11 / 72

11) When interacting with a police officer, a security operative must always:

A) offer personal opinions on the legal matter

B) refuse to hand over any evidence

C) allow the police officer to take control of the situation

D) demand the police officer show their identification immediately

12 / 72

12) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Employee social gatherings outside work

D) Dress code policies

13 / 72

13) Which of the following is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It promotes communication and collaboration

B) It encourages competition amongst colleagues

C) It increases individual accountability

D) It enables individuals to work independently

14 / 72

14) Upon discovering a fire, what is the first action that must be taken?

A) Start a search for the source of the fire

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Wait for the fire to burn out

D) Sound the alarm

15 / 72

15) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A manager requesting information

D) A colleague asking for help with a task

16 / 72

16) Which of the following is an appropriate response when witnessing suspicious behaviour on public transport?

A) Use the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

B) Only report it if a crime takes place

C) Call the transport's customer service team

D) Confront the individual directly

17 / 72

17) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Escalate immediately to the highest authority

B) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

C) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

18 / 72

18) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It is accessible to the general public at any time

B) It may prevent certain individuals from accessing footage

C) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It never captures sensitive information

19 / 72

19) Which of the following is an example of an internal customer for a security company working at a venue?

A) A delivery driver making a drop-off

B) An employee of the venue

C) A window cleaner contracted by the venue

D) A member of the public attending an event

20 / 72

20) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Social media platforms

B) Entertainment websites and apps

C) Colleagues and management

D) Online gaming forums

21 / 72

21) What firefighting equipment must be used for small kitchen fires, like a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Water

B) Fire blanket

C) Sprinkler system

D) Fire hose

22 / 72

22) What is the primary reason for a security operative to wear high-visibility clothing while on patrol?

A) To clearly identify them as an emergency service worker

B) To keep warm during cold weather

C) To make their presence known and act as a deterrent

D) To reflect the uniform of local police services

23 / 72

23) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the current Health and Safety at Work etc Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only when there is an accident

B) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

24 / 72

24) When making arrests, security operatives:

A) have no special powers of arrest

B) have the same powers of arrest as police officers

C) can detain individuals until they confess

D) can arrest anyone suspected of any offence

25 / 72

25) When dealing with an upset customer, which of the following actions helps resolve the situation?

A) Tell the customer to come back later when they are less upset

B) Deny that there is any issue at all

C) Avoid directly acknowledging their concerns

D) Put yourself in the customers position and accept responsibility

26 / 72

26) What should a security operative do if they see an individual acting suspiciously and taking photographs of a restricted area?

A) Immediately challenge them to prove their identity

B) Ignore the behaviour unless they see a crime being committed

C) Confront the individual immediately and demand they delete the pictures

D) Report the activity to the control room or management

27 / 72

27) An attack is described as having a low threat level when it is:

A) highly likely in the near future

B) highly unlikely

C) almost certain

D) unlikely but possible

28 / 72

28) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A heart attack

D) A software update on a laptop

29 / 72

29) Which of the following is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Seek out a crowded place

B) Fight or flight

C) Freeze and surrender

D) Walk calmly away

30 / 72

30) Which of the following is not an example of duty of care?

A) Neglecting an individual as they do not appear vulnerable

B) Assisting an individual who seems lost

C) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

D) Raising concerns regarding an individual's safety

31 / 72

31) Which of the following behaviours suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual who appears unsure of their surroundings

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) An individual consistently entering restricted areas

32 / 72

32) How does accurate record-keeping help in a legal situation?

A) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

B) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

C) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

D) It ensures a favourable outcome in court

33 / 72

33) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) kept confidential and withheld from the police

B) disposed of and noted in a written logbook

C) photographed and then discarded

D) preserved and handed to the police

34 / 72

34) Which of the following is a main feature of criminal law?

A) Local councils handle all the cases

B) Victims of the crime always brings the case to court

C) The state brings the cases against individuals

D) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

35 / 72

35) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To question the suspect about the offence

C) To prevent the suspect from causing injury to themselves

D) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

36 / 72

36) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place away from ignition sources

B) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

C) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

D) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near the electrical equipment

37 / 72

37) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can effectively improve security for security operatives?

A) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

B) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

C) Increasing the use of entry fees for access control

D) Organising private gatherings within the community

38 / 72

38) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

B) Check the building for the fire's location

C) Proceed to the assembly point

D) Start a search for the source of the fire

39 / 72

39) Which of the following is a key element in deterring anti-social behaviour?

A) High-profile patrols

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) Neglecting minor incidents

D) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

40 / 72

40) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire wardens

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of hazardous materials

41 / 72

41) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Regulating the security industry through licensing

B) Training security staff for private companies

C) Offering financial support to security contractors

D) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

42 / 72

42) The main purpose of the anti-terror hotline is to:

A) provide details on terrorism prevention training

B) report non-urgent suspicious activity

C) provide contact details to the correct medical services

D) report threats needing urgent police action

43 / 72

43) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Being confident and energetic

44 / 72

44) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) deleted after one month

B) reviewed by only staff member

C) accessed only by authorised personnel

D) shared on social media to raise awareness

45 / 72

45) Which of the following must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

B) Separate the victim from the attacker

C) Allow the victim and the attacker to resolve the issue

D) Notify the victim's family before taking any action

46 / 72

46) Which of the following is a basic principle of evacuation?

A) Making sure everyone stays calm and follows procedure

B) Blocking access to all staircases

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Making sure security personnel leave first

47 / 72

47) What does the term arrest mean?

A) To escort someone to safety

B) To question someone about a crime

C) To inform someone of their rights

D) To take away someone's liberty

48 / 72

48) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking in a aggressive tone

B) Writing down instructions

C) Speaking calmly

D) Being confrontational

49 / 72

49) Which of the following is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) Allowing security companies to operate without regulation

B) Raising performance standards within the private security industry

C) Limiting the number of security contractors in the market

D) Reducing the need for customer service in security roles

50 / 72

50) What is the second step to take when making a citizen's arrest?

A) Proceed to question the individual

B) Contact the police

C) Immediately perform a search

D) Detain the individual

51 / 72

51) The alarm sounds and smoke is seen coming from a nearby room, which of the following emergencies is likely occurring?

A) Water leak

B) Gas leak

C) Fire

D) Power failure

52 / 72

52) Which of the following is not one of the 4 Cs?

A) Control

B) Clear

C) Confirm

D) Conclusion

53 / 72

53) Which of the following is the correct way to explain how an incident unravelled in a report?

A) Recount only the parts that seem important

B) List the names of staff present

C) State the total number of visitors

D) Describe the different stages leading up to it

54 / 72

54) Which of the following is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorised activities

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

55 / 72

55) Which of the following describes necessary force?

A) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgement

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force that is used when other options have been exhausted

D) Force that is allowed if it results in a positive outcome

56 / 72

56) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to change their duties as they see fit

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

C) By ensuring the security operative meets the client's requirements

D) By providing only general instructions without specific details

57 / 72

57) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Observing people and places to gather information

B) Monitoring a public event as a licenced CCTV operator

C) Speaking with security staff members to ask for directions

D) Taking a number of different pictures of a landmark

58 / 72

58) Which classification of fire involves materials such as paper, wood and textiles?

A) Class B

B) Class D

C) Class F

D) Class A

59 / 72

59) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

60 / 72

60) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for any future issues

B) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To follow legal requirements and document an incident

61 / 72

61) Which of the following is a key component of an emergency plan?

A) A detailed list of all staff personal contact numbers

B) A map of the local area's restaurants and shops

C) An evacuation procedure, including assembly points

D) A schedule for the next week's security patrols

62 / 72

62) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence even if nobody was injured

B) A dangerous occurrence only if somebody was injured

C) Cases of common colds among employees

D) Cases of accidental slips that result in minor bruises

63 / 72

63) Which of the following is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need for any other security measures

B) It will remove the need to call emergency services

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

64 / 72

64) Which of the following must be done when a security operative is preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Avoid communication with their legal representative

B) Look at as little information as possible and make no preparations

C) Wait until the last minute to arrive

D) Review their statement and the significant case details

65 / 72

65) Which or the following is a significant consequence that a security operative may face if they make a false arrest?

A) Temporary suspension from their job

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Verbal warning from their employer

66 / 72

66) What do the terms run, hide and tell signify to a security operative in the event of a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away and tell the authorities about the situation

B) Run to safety, hide if necessary and tell the authorities about the situation

C) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment and tell the media

D) Run home, hide from the threat and tell others on social media

67 / 72

67) Which of the following describes the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To submit criticism against security personnel

B) To report lost goods to Law Enforcement

C) To submit suggestions regarding customer service

D) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

68 / 72

68) Which of the following is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

B) Documenting visitor logs

C) Recording shift instructions and length of break times

D) Documenting found items

69 / 72

69) In which of the following situations must effective communication be used?

A) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

B) When dealing with aggressive customers

C) When planning breaks for security staff

D) When managing the layout of furniture in the office

70 / 72

70) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well presented

B) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

C) Displaying a lack of confidence and insecurity

D) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

71 / 72

71) A main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Remove any criminal elements from the industry

B) Increase the number of security personnel in the industry

C) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

72 / 72

72) Which of the following must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Personal preferences in handling situations

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) SIA standards and the company's values

D) Instructions from colleagues

Your score is

The average score is 48%

Module 2

/60

SO Module 2

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 2" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 60

1) Information on who security officers should allow onto a site can be found in the:

A) entrance book

B) health and safety policy

C) admissions policy

D) fire policy

2 / 60

2) When managing queues, it is important to assess what?

A) Customer height

B) Customer religion

C) Customer behaviour

D) Customer age

3 / 60

3) Which of the following best describes the main responsibility of a security officer?

A) Preventing waste of the organisation's materials

B) Guarding premises against unauthorised access

C) Ensuring the site is monitored 24 hours a day

D) Attracting more clients for the organisation

4 / 60

4) Following an arrest by a security officer, the next action should be to call the:

A) police

B) site owner

C) security company

D) local press

5 / 60

5) Ignoring your personal safety during a conflict situation will most likely:

A) reduce the need for reports

B) increase the risk of escalation

C) decrease the risk of escalation

D) increase the need for extra staff

6 / 60

6) From the following, what skill can help you during a conflict situation?

A) Authoritative speech

B) Negative communication

C) Positive talking

D) Active listening

7 / 60

7) An example of a physical protection system to help prevent article theft is an electronic article surveillance (EAS) device. These are more commonly known as:

A) buzzers

B) triggers

C) tags

D) bugs

8 / 60

8) If a visitor refuses to be searched at the access point to a site the security officer should:

A) allow entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

B) arrest the visitor for refusing to be searched

C) refuse entry and report the matter to the police

D) refuse entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

9 / 60

9) What are the 2 telephone numbers you can use to call the emergency services on?

A) 100 and 112

B) 999 and 211

C) 999 and 112

D) 999 and 100

10 / 60

10) The most important reason for crime scenes to be preserved is to:

A) help the ambulance service

B) make arrests

C) help identify offenders

D) keep the site clean

11 / 60

11) The most effective way to safely dispose of a needle is to put it in:

A) the waste bin

B) newspaper, wrapped up

C) a bottle

D) a sharps box

12 / 60

12) If a member of staff refuses to be searched on exit, a security officer should:

A) tell them that it is a breach of their contract and record all details

B) take them to a separate room and search them anyway

C) remove their personal property and allow them to leave

D) allow them to exit and take no further action

13 / 60

13) Which of the following is not an example of illegal drugs litter?

A) Empty beer cans

B) Burnt spoons

C) Discarded needles

D) Scorched tinfoil

14 / 60

14) During incidents, dynamic risk assessments help to:

A) prevent prosecution

B) keep everyone safe

C) prevent crimes

D) only keep yourself safe

15 / 60

15) Which of the following statements describes best practice when carrying out searches?

A) Permission by the subject must always be given before a search

B) Force can be used if a search is refused

C) Anyone can be searched on entry to a site

D) Authorisation by a supervisor must be granted before any search begins

16 / 60

16) A fire alarm system can assist a security officer by:

A) informing the ambulance service

B) alerting officers to intruders

C) showing evacuation routes

D) alerting officers to incidents

17 / 60

17) Which of the following are not items of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A) Pocketbooks

B) Metal detectors

C) Body-worn cameras

D) Personal alarms

18 / 60

18) Using personal protective equipment (PPE) correctly will:

A) save you time

B) make your job easier

C) protect you from harm

D) make you comfortable

19 / 60

19) A customer approaches the front door and has enlarged pupils and rapid jaw movement; this is a potential indicator that they are under the influence of:

A) Marijuana

B) LSD

C) Alcohol

D) Ecstasy

20 / 60

20) A security officer would secure any unauthorised items found during a search by following:

A) the advice of colleagues

B) police guidelines

C) a supervisor's instructions

D) the assignment instructions

21 / 60

21) How would you spell the word CAT using the phonetic alphabet?

A) Cat, Apple, Tunisia

B) Charlie, Alpha, Tango

C) Charlie, Alpha, Toga

D) Charlie, Apple, Tango

22 / 60

22) You can increase your personal safety at work by:

A) taking longer breaks drinking plenty of coffee staying alert

B) drinking plenty of coffee

C) staying alert

D) noting pocketbook entries

23 / 60

23) It is important to check the identification documents of all visitors to:

A) comply with council regulations

B) check the age of everyone entering

C) allow access for statutory agencies

D) prevent unauthorised access

24 / 60

24) Search records help prove that searches have been carried out:

A) by the police

B) inappropriately

C) with a search warrant

D) lawfully

25 / 60

25) Having a good method of entry control will ensure that:

A) managers can check who is working on the site

B) visitors' identification is properly checked before entry

C) health and safety risks are recorded

D) staff are thoroughly searched when entering

26 / 60

26) Which types of people are most likely to put your personal safety at greater risk?

A) Intoxicated people

B) Lone individuals

C) Elderly people

D) Young people

27 / 60

27) Snap patrols carried out during a shift are made as the result of a specific what?

A) Complaint

B) Rumour

C) Request

D) Incident

28 / 60

28) If a customer or member of the public sustains a minor injury during a vehicle search, your first action should be to contact:

A) a first-aider

B) the police

C) the site owner

D) your line manager

29 / 60

29) While completing patrols, you should stay in contact with:

A) the police

B) the site owner

C) the health and safety team

D) the control room

30 / 60

30) Metal detectors in search areas are mainly used to prevent the entry of

A) alcohol

B) mobile phones

C) weapons

D) drugs

31 / 60

31) Which of the following requests for access should make a security officer suspicious?

A) An appointment that has been notified to security

B) No appointment confirmed but with a named contact

C) No appointment confirmed and no known contact

D) An appointment confirmed with a named contact

32 / 60

32) Retail security most likely involves the protection of:

A) licensed premises

B) management

C) businesses

D) government buildings

33 / 60

33) On activation of a fire alarm, what should a security officer working on access control do?

A) Do nothing until the alarm is confirmed as genuine

B) Leave their post and go to the assembly point

C) Open any entry/exit barriers and monitor them

D) Go and look for the area on fire

34 / 60

34) Properly maintained protection systems are less likely to:

A) function correctly

B) require software updates

C) malfunction

D) require servicing

35 / 60

35) Body-worn cameras (BWC) are not used to:

A) protects against false allegations

B) record incidents for social media

C) identify offenders

D) gather evidence of crimes

36 / 60

36) The main purpose of a final patrol is to:

A) comply with the supervisor's instructions

B) prevent criminals from predicting when security is present

C) ensure no problems exist for the next officer on duty

D) identify serious problems throughout the shift

37 / 60

37) Reflecting on personal safety experiences will most likely:

A) make you safer

B) cause a change in procedures

C) lead to the recruitment of more staff

D) keep supervisors happy

38 / 60

38) Which of the following incidents would require a call to the emergency services?

A) A check-call

B) A leaking tap

C) A trip or fall

D) A fire

39 / 60

39) While searching the interior of a vehicle, you will not be required to search:

A) in door pockets

B) the exhaust pipe

C) under the carpets

D) under the seats

40 / 60

40) Positional asphyxia is most likely to be caused by:

A) an arm hold

B) strikes and kicks

C) contact with non-weapon items

D) restraint on the ground

41 / 60

41) In all conflict situations, security officers need to carry out ongoing:

A) injury surveys

B) risk assessments aggravation assessments

C) risk surveys

D) accident report book

42 / 60

42) Security officer patrols carried out at the start of the shift are called:

A) general patrols

B) primary patrols

C) interim patrols

D) initial patrols

43 / 60

43) Safety is the responsibility of:

A) health and safety personnel

B) employees only

C) everyone

D) employers only

44 / 60

44) On finding some damage on the site during a patrol, who should you report it to initially?

A) The control room

B) The accounts department

C) The site owner

D) The health and safety team

45 / 60

45) While on duty, a security officer can get assistance, guidance and emergency support from:

A) the security manager's office during office hours

B) other staff from the organisation

C) human resources

D) the security control room

46 / 60

46) Security officers should only use physical interventions if they:

A) do not have backup

B) have authority from the police

C) are trained

D) are martial arts experts

47 / 60

47) Keeping your knowledge and skills up to date will most likely:

A) reduce risks to your personal safety

B) decrease your efficiency

C) ensure you comply with your contract

D) increase the risk to your personal safety

48 / 60

48) A feature of security systems is that they:

A) detect external interference

B) identify the type of vehicles entering a site

C) measure the number of pedestrians entering a site

D) record customer preferences in a retail shop

49 / 60

49) Following a serious incident and to preserve evidence, access to a crime scene should be what?

A) Unrestricted

B) Restricted

C) Open to the public

D) Photographed

50 / 60

50) Pre-entry checks are carried out on a site before it opens to:

A) ensure the site is safe

B) comply with council policy

C) comply with building regulations

D) ensure the site is clean

51 / 60

51) Check calls contribute to a security officer's:

A) conduct

B) time-keeping

C) safety

D) efficiency

52 / 60

52) Which of the following is an example of a general search?

A) Searches carried out only at night

B) Everyone is searched

C) Searches carried out during daylight hours only

D) Only males are searched

53 / 60

53) The use of CCTV in search areas will most likely prevent.

A) malicious allegations

B) needle-stick injuries

C) drugs contamination

D) criminal damage

54 / 60

54) What pro-word means 'my message ends, please reply?

A) Over

B) Wait

C) Out

D) Repeat

55 / 60

55) What should a security officer do immediately on activation of a fire alarm?

A) Implement full evacuation of the site

B) Silence the alarm while they investigate

C) Ignore it until confirmed as genuine

D) Check the control panel for the location

56 / 60

56) When operating an external automated security barrier, a security officer should ensure that:

A) only cars enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

B) only one vehicle enters or exits the site when the barrier is raised.

C) only staff vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

D) only emergency vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

57 / 60

57) Which of the following is not a statutory agency employee?

A) A health and safety inspector

B) A police officer

C) A fire officer

D) A national health service employee

58 / 60

58) What is the main risk with a needle-stick injury?

A) Infectious diseases

B) Pain

C) Sickness

D) Bleeding

59 / 60

59) Which of the following would be considered a type of security technology?

A) Speed ramps on the approach road

B) A swipe card door access key

C) Steel grills on windows

D) security guard at barrier control

60 / 60

60) In addition to physical harm, physical interventions are most likely to cause:

A) job loss

B) vehicle accidents

C) work-related stress

D) marriage problems

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 3

/50

SO Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The conflict will remain unresolved

C) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

D) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

2 / 50

2) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Victim Support Scheme

B) The manager

C) The lead security operative

D) The Local Council

3 / 50

3) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) May get disciplined

B) Will continue to perform well

C) Can ignore injury

D) Will avoid being disciplined

4 / 50

4) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Develop a rapport with the customer

B) Note down the instructions

C) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

D) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

5 / 50

5) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Not listening to the customer

B) Speaking to the customer seriously

C) Being assertive towards the customer

D) Advising to the customer

6 / 50

6) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Loses face

B) Shocked

C) Made to feel welcome

D) Treated like a valued guest

7 / 50

7) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Bully at them and tell jokes

B) Stand further away from the employee

C) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

D) Begin to use abusive personal language

8 / 50

8) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Have your driver's license suspended

B) An argument

C) The customer departing

D) Loss of your employment

9 / 50

9) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Take one to another room to separate them

B) Force to stop an argument

C) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

D) Threaten to call the police

10 / 50

10) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

B) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

C) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

D) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

11 / 50

11) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) The outcome is successful

B) They complain to management

C) Your opinion is heard

D) Any direction given are followed

12 / 50

12) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

B) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

C) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

D) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

13 / 50

13) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Empathic

B) A win-win

C) Compromised

D) A spin-off

14 / 50

14) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

B) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search

C) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

D) 'I need that bag to make search it.

15 / 50

15) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

B) Kick the customer out without warning

C) Exert all available force

D) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

16 / 50

16) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) gesturing with open palms

B) Facing the other person directly

C) only paying partial attention to the other person

D) Dodging eye contact

17 / 50

17) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their hearing tunes into the threat

B) Their heartbeat decelerates

C) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

D) Their thought processes become more logical

18 / 50

18) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Stimulus

B) Motivation

C) Humiliation

D) Recognition

19 / 50

19) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You cannot guarantee victory

B) For the safety of yourself and others

C) You might be fired from your workplace

D) The customer might bring his friends

20 / 50

20) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak quickly

B) Speak calmly

C) Speak aggressively

D) Speak loudly

21 / 50

21) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

B) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

C) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

D) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

22 / 50

22) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and emotional

B) Rational and psychological

C) Rational and social

D) Irrational and emotional

23 / 50

23) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

B) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

C) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

D) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

24 / 50

24) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

B) By criticising the actions of the customer

C) Showing empathy towards the customer

D) Being bossy towards the customer

25 / 50

25) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

B) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

C) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

D) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

26 / 50

26) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Persuasive communication

B) Effective communication

C) Poor communication

D) Concise communication

27 / 50

27) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

B) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

C) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

D) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

28 / 50

28) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

B) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

C) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

D) It minimizes the chances of a risk

29 / 50

29) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Ignoring the legal consequences

B) Fighting back

C) Fear of retaliation

D) Being rude

30 / 50

30) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Being assertive

B) Displaying empathy to show you understand to other person

C) Being threatening

D) Explaining the potential outcomes behaviour continuing

31 / 50

31) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Patronised

C) Capable

D) Assertive

32 / 50

32) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

D) It empowers the customer to take charge

33 / 50

33) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Angry

C) Empowered

D) Motivated

34 / 50

34) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Нарру

B) Comfortable

C) Appreciated

D) Insulted

35 / 50

35) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Frustration

B) Violence

C) Assertiveness

D) Patience

36 / 50

36) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Different eye colour

B) Various clothes

C) Different cultures

D) Diverse hair colour

37 / 50

37) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Awareness

B) Frustration

C) Empathy

D) Assertiveness

38 / 50

38) Empathy means being able to:

A) Encourage another person’s perception

B) Understand another person’s point of view

C) Share someone else's opinion

D) Ignore someone else's opinion

39 / 50

39) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to talk their way out of the situation

B) Tell the manager

C) Hold until the employee moves

D) Try to force their way past the employee

40 / 50

40) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) might avoid injury

B) Will still do a nice job

C) May get disciplined

D) Will ignore being disciplined

41 / 50

41) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To get increase in salary

B) Make a positive impression on your manager

C) To pick up trends

D) To get a promotion

42 / 50

42) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

B) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

C) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

D) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

43 / 50

43) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Samaritans

B) Crime Stoppers

C) Victim Support

D) Child Line

44 / 50

44) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

D) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

45 / 50

45) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

B) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

46 / 50

46) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Minimal

B) Reasonable

C) Mandatory

D) Suitable

47 / 50

47) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Psychological barrier

B) Social barrier

C) Political barrier

D) Physical barrier

48 / 50

48) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having strong personal values

B) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

C) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

D) Being unsure of what action is take

49 / 50

49) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being fearful of the consequences

B) Being kept waiting

C) Being disregarded

D) Not providing relevant information

50 / 50

50) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Reasonable

B) Less

C) Approachable

D) Mandatory

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

Quick Links

Our Construction Services

Our Security Services

Forms & Submissions

SIA Approved Security Training Courses

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