Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) A noise complaint

B) Littering

C) An assault

D) Parking offenses

2 / 99

2) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Hosting private social events for the community

B) Increasing entry fees to control access

C) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

D) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

3 / 99

3) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A colleague having an asthma attack

B) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

C) A package left unattended

D) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

4 / 99

4) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of first aid kits

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of hazardous materials

5 / 99

5) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

B) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

C) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

6 / 99

6) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

7 / 99

7) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A colleague asking for help with a task

B) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

C) A manager requesting information

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

8 / 99

8) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Providing first aid to injured staff

B) Training employees in fire safety procedures

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

9 / 99

9) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Increased motivation to perform better

B) Optimized focus on work projects

C) Developing negative coping mechanisms

D) Enhanced team dynamics

10 / 99

10) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Writing down instructions

B) Being confrontational

C) Speaking in an aggressive tone

D) Speaking calmly

11 / 99

11) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Having a clear sense of direction

12 / 99

12) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears disoriented

13 / 99

13) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

B) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

C) To provide contact details for medical services

D) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

14 / 99

14) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

B) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

C) Alert the appropriate emergency services

D) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

15 / 99

15) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

16 / 99

16) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

B) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

D) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

17 / 99

17) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Deny there's any problem

B) Ignore their complaints directly

C) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

D) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

18 / 99

18) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

B) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

C) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

D) Giving the customer all of the information at once

19 / 99

19) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Searching for a crowded area

B) Calmly walking away

C) Fight or flight

D) Freezing and surrendering

20 / 99

20) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Reviewing old criminal offenses

B) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

C) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

D) Planning out the route to the venue

21 / 99

21) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Online gaming communities

B) Social media platforms

C) Colleagues and management

D) Entertainment websites and apps

22 / 99

22) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

B) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

C) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

D) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

23 / 99

23) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Contact the transport's customer service team

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

C) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

D) Directly confront the individual

24 / 99

24) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

B) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

C) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

D) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

25 / 99

25) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is likely

B) An attack is highly likely

C) An attack is possible but unlikely

D) An attack is extremely unlikely

26 / 99

26) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A heart attack

D) An epileptic seizure

27 / 99

27) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

C) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

28 / 99

28) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

B) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

C) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

D) Something that might cause occasional distractions

29 / 99

29) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

C) Managing public relations for private companies

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

30 / 99

30) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

31 / 99

31) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

B) To avoid complaints from individuals

C) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

D) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

32 / 99

32) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Work-related personal projects

B) Employee social gatherings outside work

C) Potential promotions within the company

D) Dress code policies

33 / 99

33) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

B) Increased exposure to potential violence

C) Reduced access to basic health support

D) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

34 / 99

34) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

B) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

C) To avoid supporting each individual customer

D) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

35 / 99

35) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking action

B) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

36 / 99

36) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A duty sheet

B) A search register

C) An accident report

D) A visitor log

37 / 99

37) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

B) Requesting assistance with directions

C) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

D) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

38 / 99

38) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

D) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

39 / 99

39) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

B) Conducting highly visible patrols

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) Ignoring minor incidents

40 / 99

40) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

41 / 99

41) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Photograph it and then throw it away

B) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

C) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

D) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

42 / 99

42) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Common illnesses among employees

B) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

C) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

D) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

43 / 99

43) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) May result in increased stress for the security operative

D) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

44 / 99

44) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Have no special powers of arrest

B) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

C) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

D) Can detain individuals until they confess

45 / 99

45) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Reviewed by any staff member

B) Shared on social media for public awareness

C) Accessed only by authorized personnel

D) Deleted after one month

46 / 99

46) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

B) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

C) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

D) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

47 / 99

47) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

B) Guiding someone to a safe place

C) Informing someone of their legal rights

D) Depriving someone of their freedom

48 / 99

48) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When arranging office furniture

B) When scheduling breaks for security staff

C) When interacting with hostile customers

D) When discussing personal matters outside of work

49 / 99

49) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Training security staff for private companies

B) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

C) Regulating the security industry through licensing

D) Offering financial support to security contractors

50 / 99

50) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A notice posted on a door

B) A facial expression showing confusion

C) A security operative speaking to a customer

D) Listening to a colleague's opinion

51 / 99

51) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

B) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

C) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

52 / 99

52) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

53 / 99

53) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Removing them from the premises

B) Clear and concise communication

C) Offering physical assistance

D) Providing immediate medical attention

54 / 99

54) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

B) State the total number of visitors

C) Recount only the parts that seem important

D) List the names of staff present

55 / 99

55) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

B) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

56 / 99

56) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Reading a text message aloud

B) Speaking clearly to someone

C) Making a phone call

D) Using hand gestures

57 / 99

57) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To gather information about the offense

B) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

58 / 99

58) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

B) Are an employee running late for a meeting

C) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

D) Might be conducting suspicious activities

59 / 99

59) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

B) Check the building for any missing people

C) Proceed to the assembly point

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

60 / 99

60) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Promote high standards within the industry

B) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

C) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) Guarantee low prices for security services

61 / 99

61) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

B) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

C) Call their superior before taking any actions

D) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

62 / 99

62) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

C) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

D) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

63 / 99

63) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

B) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

64 / 99

64) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It means fewer security staff are needed

B) It leads to more competition among staff

C) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

D) It increases individual recognition

65 / 99

65) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Sending a text message

C) Writing a polite email

D) Smiling or frowning

66 / 99

66) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

B) Immediately evacuate the building

C) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

D) Activate the fire alarm

67 / 99

67) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

B) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

C) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

D) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

68 / 99

68) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

D) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

69 / 99

69) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Use of firearms

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Hacking into a company's computer systems

D) Release of dangerous substances

70 / 99

70) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

B) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

C) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

71 / 99

71) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is highly improbable

B) When it is possible but not likely

C) When it is unlikely but still possible

D) When it is almost certain to happen

72 / 99

72) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

B) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

C) Engaging the person with professional customer service

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

73 / 99

73) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

74 / 99

74) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

B) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

C) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

75 / 99

75) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

B) Only document it if they require medical treatment

C) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

D) Report the injury to their employer

76 / 99

76) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

B) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

C) Directing security to a distressed individual

D) Taking part in group activities with friends

77 / 99

77) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

B) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

C) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

D) To submit complaints against security personnel

78 / 99

78) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

B) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

C) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

D) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

79 / 99

79) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

B) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

80 / 99

80) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Customer support agent

B) Personal trainer

C) Maintenance person

D) Vehicle immobilizer

81 / 99

81) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To review an incident but take no reflective action

B) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

C) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

D) To completely overlook the incident and move on

82 / 99

82) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Integrity

B) Aggression

C) Dishonesty

D) Indifference

83 / 99

83) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Having a discussion with a family member

84 / 99

84) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Instructions from colleagues

B) SIA standards and the company's established values

C) Personal preferences for handling situations

D) Customer wishes and demands

85 / 99

85) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to contact emergency services

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

86 / 99

86) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

D) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

87 / 99

87) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual accountability

B) It encourages competition among colleagues

C) It promotes communication and collaboration

D) It enables individuals to work independently

88 / 99

88) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Reducing opportunities for crimes

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

D) Limiting communication between security teams

89 / 99

89) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Positive self-esteem

B) Decrease in social interactions

C) Changes in behavior

D) Consistent injuries

90 / 99

90) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

B) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

C) To avoid contact with any key personnel

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

91 / 99

91) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

B) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

C) Recording shift instructions and break durations

D) Documenting found items

92 / 99

92) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

B) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

C) The state brings the cases against individuals

D) Local councils handle all the cases

93 / 99

93) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

C) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

D) By providing only general instructions without specific details

94 / 99

94) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

B) To show authority and control over the situation

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

95 / 99

95) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To limit employee movement around the premises

B) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

96 / 99

96) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

B) To avoid potential liability for future issues

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

97 / 99

97) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Removing the carbon dioxide

B) Adding more oxygen

C) Adding more heat

D) Removing the fuel

98 / 99

98) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To improve the reputation of the venue

B) To avoid working extra hours

C) To make personal notes about customers

D) To comply with legal requirements

99 / 99

99) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Verbal warning from their employer

Your score is

The average score is 66%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Recount only the seemingly important parts

B) State the total number of visitors

C) List the names of all staff present

D) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

2 / 92

2) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Improving team morale

B) Preparing to use physical restraints

C) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

D) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

3 / 92

3) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Have no special powers of arrest

D) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

4 / 92

4) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

B) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

C) Contacting emergency services.

D) Investigating the cause before taking action.

5 / 92

5) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

B) It prevents involvement from local authorities

C) It ensures no one will challenge actions

D) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

6 / 92

6) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Call the transport's customer service team

D) Only report it if a crime occurs

7 / 92

7) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Try to administer first aid without training

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

8 / 92

8) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

B) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

C) A child playing outdoors with friends

D) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

9 / 92

9) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A slip on a wet floor

B) An epileptic seizure

C) A heart attack

D) A software update on a laptop

10 / 92

10) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) The approved contractor scheme

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) A security benefits scheme for employees

11 / 92

11) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Providing written instructions.

B) Being argumentative.

C) Speaking in a calm manner.

D) Using an aggressive tone.

12 / 92

12) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and tracking individuals

B) Engaging in group activities with friends

C) Guiding security towards a distressed person

D) Offering aid to people in distress

13 / 92

13) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When managing office furniture layout

C) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

D) When planning breaks for security staff

14 / 92

14) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Photographed and then discarded

B) Disposed of and logged

C) Preserved and handed over to the police

D) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

15 / 92

15) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

B) Requesting assistance from the police

C) Using local support organizations

D) Booking a taxi for the individual

16 / 92

16) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

B) A red circle with a line through it

C) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

D) A blue square with a cross

17 / 92

17) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Dress code policies

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Employee social gatherings outside of work

18 / 92

18) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Local councils manage all cases

B) Private individuals initiate cases in court

C) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

D) The state brings charges against individuals

19 / 92

19) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

20 / 92

20) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It can only be used outdoors

B) It cannot record any criminal activities

C) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

D) It can only be used indoors

21 / 92

21) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Notify the victim's family before taking action

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

D) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

22 / 92

22) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Assault

B) Breach of contract

C) Murder

D) Burglary

23 / 92

23) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 100 meters.

B) Approximately 200 meters.

C) Approximately 300 meters.

D) Approximately 400 meters.

24 / 92

24) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Ensuring security personnel leave first

B) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Blocking access to all staircases

25 / 92

25) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

B) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

C) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

D) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

26 / 92

26) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

B) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

C) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

D) To question the suspect about the offense

27 / 92

27) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The release of hazardous substances.

B) Theft of sensitive information.

C) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

D) The use of firearms.

28 / 92

28) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To review an incident without taking reflective action

B) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

C) To help them avoid discussing the incident

D) To completely disregard the incident and move on

29 / 92

29) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) An individual who appears disoriented

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

30 / 92

30) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Water, heat, and oxygen

B) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

C) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

D) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

31 / 92

31) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Writing a polite email

B) Sending a text message

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Smiling or frowning

32 / 92

32) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

C) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

D) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

33 / 92

33) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

B) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

34 / 92

34) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

35 / 92

35) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

36 / 92

36) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break times

B) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

C) Documenting visitor logs

D) Documenting found items

37 / 92

37) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

C) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

D) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

38 / 92

38) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Private investigator

B) Office receptionist

C) Delivery driver

D) Manned Guarding

39 / 92

39) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

B) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

C) Inform a manager and record the incident.

D) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

40 / 92

40) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

B) To immediately leave the scene

C) To inform the media about the arrest

D) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

41 / 92

41) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

B) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

C) Limited access to basic health support.

D) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

42 / 92

42) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) People freezing in place due to shock

B) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

C) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

D) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

43 / 92

43) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It removes the need to call emergency services

D) It eliminates the need for other security measures

44 / 92

44) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

B) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

C) Reducing communication between team members

D) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

45 / 92

45) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

C) A colleague seeking help with a task

D) A manager requesting information

46 / 92

46) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

B) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

C) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

D) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

47 / 92

47) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Complete

B) Conclusion

C) Clear

D) Concise

48 / 92

48) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

B) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

D) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

49 / 92

49) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) SIA standards and the company's values

B) Instructions from colleagues

C) Personal preferences in handling situations

D) Customer wishes and demands

50 / 92

50) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Allocation of lunch breaks

B) Compensation and employee benefits

C) Access to company resources

D) Participation in team-building activities

51 / 92

51) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

B) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

C) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

D) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

52 / 92

52) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Accessible only by authorized personnel

B) Deleted after one month

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Shared on social media for awareness

53 / 92

53) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

B) To avoid potential liability for issues

C) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

D) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

54 / 92

54) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

B) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

C) Cases of common colds among employees

D) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

55 / 92

55) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

C) It reduces the need for training and oversight

D) It increases risks for both staff and the public

56 / 92

56) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Nearly certain

B) Possible but unlikely

C) Unlikely but conceivable

D) Highly improbable

57 / 92

57) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

B) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

C) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

D) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

58 / 92

58) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

B) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

C) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

D) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

59 / 92

59) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To reduce security visibility to the public

B) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) To avoid any staff interactions

D) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

60 / 92

60) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

B) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

C) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

D) Denying that there is any issue

61 / 92

61) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Foam

B) Water

C) Wet chemical

D) CO2 Gas

62 / 92

62) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

B) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

C) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

D) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

63 / 92

63) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

C) Sound the alarm

D) Stop and search for the fire's source

64 / 92

64) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Samaritans

B) Trade unions

C) The local community center

D) Citizens Advice Bureau

65 / 92

65) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Help vulnerable people evacuate

B) Sound the alarm

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Check the fire extinguishers

66 / 92

66) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

B) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

C) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

D) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

67 / 92

67) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving wood or rubber

B) A fire involving petrol or paint

C) A fire involving hot cooking oils

D) A fire involving butane gas

68 / 92

68) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Asking security staff for directions

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

69 / 92

69) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

B) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

C) To avoid attending required safety training.

D) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

70 / 92

70) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

B) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

C) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

D) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

71 / 92

71) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

B) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

D) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

72 / 92

72) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Being confident and energetic

73 / 92

73) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It fosters communication and cooperation

B) It allows individuals to work in isolation

C) It increases individual responsibility

D) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

74 / 92

74) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) High-visibility patrols

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

D) Ignoring minor incidents

75 / 92

75) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) Any previous self-protection training they had

B) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

C) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

D) What they observed and their names

76 / 92

76) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Sprinkler system

B) Fire blanket

C) Water

D) Fire hose

77 / 92

77) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

B) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

C) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

D) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

78 / 92

78) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

B) Avoid communication with their legal representative

C) Review their statement and the relevant case details

D) Wait until the last minute to arrive

79 / 92

79) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A water leak

B) A gas leak

C) A power outage

D) A fire

80 / 92

80) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

B) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

C) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

D) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

81 / 92

81) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Assisting a lost individual

B) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

C) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

D) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

82 / 92

82) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

83 / 92

83) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Financial bonuses

B) New opportunities for equipment

C) Effective practices

D) Good team-building activities

84 / 92

84) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

B) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

C) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

D) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

85 / 92

85) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) A verbal warning from their employer

B) Temporary suspension from their job

C) Civil or criminal prosecution

D) Requirement to attend additional training

86 / 92

86) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

B) Training security personnel for private firms.

C) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

D) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

87 / 92

87) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Immediately search the individual

B) Proceed to question the individual

C) Detain the individual

D) Escort the individual off the premises

88 / 92

88) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

89 / 92

89) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Organizing private gatherings within the community

B) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

C) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

D) Increasing entry fees for access control

90 / 92

90) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

B) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

D) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

91 / 92

91) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

92 / 92

92) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class B

B) Class F

C) Class D

D) Class A

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A visitor log

B) A duty sheet

C) An accident report

D) A search register

2 / 64

2) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 400 metres

B) 300 metres

C) 100 metres

D) 200 metres

3 / 64

3) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

B) A blue square with a cross

C) A white circle with a black cross

D) A red circle with a line through it

4 / 64

4) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

B) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

C) To gather information about the offence

D) To ensure property is not damaged

5 / 64

5) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

D) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

6 / 64

6) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Help vulnerable people evacuate

B) Sound the alarm

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Check the fire extinguishers

7 / 64

7) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

B) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

C) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

8 / 64

8) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Physical assistance

B) Clear communication

C) Medical attention

D) Removal from the premises

9 / 64

9) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A colleague having an asthma attack

B) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

C) A package left unattended

D) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

10 / 64

10) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) The approved contractor scheme

C) A security benefits scheme for employees

D) Recruiting new security officers

11 / 64

11) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

B) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

C) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

D) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

12 / 64

12) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Reducing opportunities for crimes

D) Limiting communication between security teams

13 / 64

13) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

14 / 64

14) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Reviewing old criminal offences

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

15 / 64

15) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

B) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

C) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

16 / 64

16) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Using hand gestures

B) Speaking clearly to someone

C) Making a phone call

D) Reading a text message aloud

17 / 64

17) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Providing first aid to injured staff

B) Training employees in fire safety procedures

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

18 / 64

18) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To add a formal tone to the conversation

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

19 / 64

19) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Integrity

B) Aggression

C) Indifference

D) Dishonesty

20 / 64

20) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a tourist group

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Having a discussion with a family member

D) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

21 / 64

21) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) recognise areas for improvement

B) better understand how to escalate situations

C) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

D) boost team morale

22 / 64

22) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

B) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

C) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

D) Requesting assistance with directions

23 / 64

23) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Assault

B) Burglary

C) Breach of contract

D) Murder

24 / 64

24) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

C) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

D) It decreases the need for training and supervision

25 / 64

25) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) a police complaint

B) parking offences

C) littering

D) an assault

26 / 64

26) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

B) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

C) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

D) Follow the company's procedures and policies

27 / 64

27) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

C) Lift the load using the back muscles

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

28 / 64

28) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To avoid complaints from individuals

C) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

D) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

29 / 64

29) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Removing the fuel

B) Adding more oxygen

C) Removing the carbon dioxide

D) Adding more heat

30 / 64

30) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A facial expression showing confusion

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

31 / 64

31) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) CO2 Gas

B) Foam

C) Water

D) Wet chemical

32 / 64

32) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

B) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

33 / 64

33) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Only document it if they require medical treatment

B) Report the injury to their employer

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

34 / 64

34) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

B) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

C) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

D) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

35 / 64

35) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Maintenance person

B) Vehicle immobiliser

C) Personal trainer

D) Customer support agent

36 / 64

36) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

D) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

37 / 64

37) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) guarantee low prices for security services

B) promote high standards within the industry

C) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) limit the number of security providers within the industry

38 / 64

38) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) The local community centre

C) Citizens Advice Bureau

D) Samaritans

39 / 64

39) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Changes in behaviour

B) Decrease in social interactions

C) Consistent injuries

D) Positive self-esteem

40 / 64

40) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

C) People freezing in place due to shock

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

41 / 64

41) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

B) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

C) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

D) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

42 / 64

42) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Try to administer first aid without training

D) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

43 / 64

43) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Any disease related to the workplace

B) Cutting an individual to an employee

C) Any disease not related to the workplace

D) Only serious contagious diseases

44 / 64

44) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

B) avoid any staff interactions

C) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

D) reduce security visibility to the public

45 / 64

45) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child being closely supervised by parents

B) A child playing in a field with friends

C) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

D) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

46 / 64

46) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

B) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

C) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

47 / 64

47) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

B) To show authority and control over the situation

C) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

D) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

48 / 64

48) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

49 / 64

49) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

D) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

50 / 64

50) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Booking a taxi for the individual

B) Using local support organisations

C) Requesting assistance from the police

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

51 / 64

51) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

B) Moving people into a secure area in a building

C) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

D) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

52 / 64

52) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

B) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

D) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

53 / 64

53) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

54 / 64

54) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) might be conducting suspicious activities

B) are an employee running late for a meeting

C) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

D) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

B) Engaging the person with professional customer service

C) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

D) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

56 / 64

56) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Lunch breaks

B) Team-building activities

C) Use of company resources

D) Pay and benefits

57 / 64

57) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

B) To avoid contact with any key personnel

C) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

58 / 64

58) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To improve employee productivity and performance

B) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To limit employee movement around the premises

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

59 / 64

59) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with the law

B) To improve the reputation of the venue

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To make personal notes about customers

60 / 64

60) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

B) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

D) may result in increased stress for the security operative

61 / 64

61) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Enhanced team dynamics

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Optimised focus on work projects

D) Increased motivation to perform better

62 / 64

62) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is extremely unlikely

B) An attack is likely

C) An attack is highly likely

D) An attack is possible but unlikely

63 / 64

63) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To take away someone's liberty

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To escort someone to safety

64 / 64

64) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

C) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

D) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

B) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

C) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

D) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

2 / 70

2) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Drug dealing

B) Being intoxicated

C) Drug use

D) Being aware

3 / 70

3) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

C) How many radios are available for use at the premises

D) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

4 / 70

4) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

B) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

C) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

D) Monitoring drink sales performance

5 / 70

5) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

B) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

C) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

D) When the venue has a large queue

6 / 70

6) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

B) Get permission from the customer

C) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

D) Inform management that a search is in progress

7 / 70

7) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) How many radios are available for use at the premises

B) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

C) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

D) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

8 / 70

8) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) Ask the venue’s manager

B) explore on the internet

C) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

D) inqure a member of the bar staff

9 / 70

9) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

B) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

C) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

D) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

10 / 70

10) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) They may not like the drinks served inside

B) It may help to reduce potential conflict

C) It helps customers to plan their evening

D) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

11 / 70

11) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

B) The day-to-day operation of the premises

C) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

D) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

12 / 70

12) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Approachable customers

B) Being monitored by CCTV

C) Violent behaviour

D) Understanding customers

13 / 70

13) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Carry search alone in a private area

B) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

C) Inform your manager

D) Record search details in your incident book

14 / 70

14) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They help to record all customers’ faces

B) They can be used by management for marketing

C) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

D) They identify those who have been banned

15 / 70

15) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Flush it down the toilet

B) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

C) Seal it in a plastic bag

D) Dispose in the general waste bin

16 / 70

16) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

B) A Serious assault outside the venue

C) An argument between a couple inside the venue

D) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

17 / 70

17) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Roulette

B) Darts

C) Chess

D) Pool

18 / 70

18) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) An incident occurring inside the venue

B) Ejection of a customer

C) Ejection of a customer

D) Drunk people outside the venue

19 / 70

19) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) The revenue of the business you work for

B) Escorting customers home

C) Enforcing parking fines

D) Ensuring admission policy is followed

20 / 70

20) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

B) A group of females chatting with a group of males

C) A female taking selfies with a male

D) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

21 / 70

21) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Keep customers entertained while waiting

B) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

C) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

D) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

22 / 70

22) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Hearsay

B) Direct

C) Incidental

D) Forensic

23 / 70

23) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) Show what a great venue you have

B) promote customer to interact with each other

C) minimize the bar queue time

D) Improve customers’ safety

24 / 70

24) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

B) Help prevent complaints from local residents

C) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

D) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

25 / 70

25) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

B) Trespass, robbery and theft

C) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

D) Assault, Theft, and Drug

26 / 70

26) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) By local MPs

B) National Threat Level information

C) Social Media outlets

D) Local Radio

27 / 70

27) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

B) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

C) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

D) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

28 / 70

28) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Loud music

B) Consumption of food

C) Use of toilets

D) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

29 / 70

29) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Sabotage

B) Theft

C) Loot

D) Burglary

30 / 70

30) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

B) The group of friends around an individual

C) The race of the individual

D) Facial hair

31 / 70

31) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Powder traces under the nose

B) Unpredictable behavior

C) Falling sleep

D) Dilated pupils

32 / 70

32) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) A harmful weapon

B) An offensive weapon

C) A dangerous weapon

D) A personal weapon

33 / 70

33) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) In the regular trash container

B) In the street refuse bin

C) Clinical Waste

D) In the broken glass bin

34 / 70

34) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Record the incident using a mobile phone

B) Contact the venue’s head office

C) Contact the emergency service

D) Contact the licensing officer

35 / 70

35) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Documentary

B) Forensic

C) Circumstantial

D) Hearsay

36 / 70

36) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) When barriers are moved by customers

B) At all times to ensure safe queuing

C) When a problem is reported by someone

D) When the numbers exceed 100

37 / 70

37) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

B) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

C) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

D) Call an ambulance

38 / 70

38) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Power of closure

B) Set new maximum occupancy limits

C) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

D) Confiscate musical equipment

39 / 70

39) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Licensing objectives

B) Licensing federation

C) Venue security measures

D) Public safety regulation

40 / 70

40) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Increase the likelihood of conflict

B) Increase customer numbers

C) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

D) Decrease customer numbers

41 / 70

41) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Rape

B) Grievous bodily harm

C) Trespass

D) Common assault

42 / 70

42) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

B) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

C) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

D) Document of those responsible in your notebook

43 / 70

43) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Writing the admission policy

B) Ensuring the premises remains full

C) Promoting house rules

D) Advertising venue theme nights

44 / 70

44) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Visitor log

B) Incident log

C) Incident questionnaire

D) Incident report

45 / 70

45) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Investigate each customer in detail.

B) Withhold information from customers

C) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

D) Make way for VIPs

46 / 70

46) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Trespass

B) Offensive behavior

C) Criminal damage

D) Unlawful entry

47 / 70

47) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

B) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

C) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

D) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

48 / 70

48) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Make all venues aware of the incident

B) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

C) Follow the local seize and secure policy

D) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

49 / 70

49) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

B) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

C) Seize the item and deny them to enter

D) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

50 / 70

50) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Actual Bodily Harm

B) Grievous Bodily Harm

C) Grand Bodily Harm

D) Common Assault

51 / 70

51) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

B) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

C) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

D) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

52 / 70

52) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) All individuals is searched

B) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

C) Specific individuals are searched

D) Random individuals are searched

53 / 70

53) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

B) They can be used by management for marketing

C) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

D) They identify those who have been banned.

54 / 70

54) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A customer

B) The manager

C) A member of staff

D) A door supervisor

55 / 70

55) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Ring to the police

B) Search anyway

C) Reject their entry

D) Notify the manager

56 / 70

56) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class B

B) Class D

C) Class A

D) Class C

57 / 70

57) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Solicitation

B) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

C) Gaming or gambling without a licence

D) Drug dealing

58 / 70

58) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Heroin

B) Tranquilisers

C) Cannabis

D) Amphetamines

59 / 70

59) The types of searches are:

A) Thorough, X-Ray, General

B) General, Handpicked, Race related

C) National, Private, Public

D) General, Random, Specific

60 / 70

60) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Nervousness

B) Exposure to carbon monoxide

C) Fear

D) Drug use

61 / 70

61) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Obtain person's permission

B) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

C) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

D) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

62 / 70

62) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

B) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

C) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

D) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

63 / 70

63) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Call the emergency services

B) Inform your supervisor

C) Destroy it yourself

D) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

64 / 70

64) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) After consulting with supervisors

B) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

C) Whilst witnessing an incident

D) Only in block capital letters

65 / 70

65) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) A search wand

B) An archway metal detector (AMD)

C) A searchlight

D) A plastic detector

66 / 70

66) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A search wand

B) A searchlight

C) An archway metal detector (AMD)

D) A plastic detector

67 / 70

67) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

B) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

C) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

D) Could become a victim of a crime

68 / 70

68) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Search individuals on entry

B) Inform the police of each event

C) Photograph customers on entry

D) Ban bags at the venue

69 / 70

69) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Gloves

B) Ear defenders

C) Safety goggles

D) Face shield

70 / 70

70) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

B) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

C) 20-year prison sentence

D) 12-year prison sentence and fine

Your score is

The average score is 72%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Victim Support Scheme

B) The lead security operative

C) The Local Council

D) The manager

2 / 50

2) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Exert all available force

B) Kick the customer out without warning

C) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

D) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

3 / 50

3) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) Any direction given is followed

B) The outcome is successful

C) Your opinion is heard

D) They complain to management

4 / 50

4) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

B) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

C) Being assertive

D) Being threatening

5 / 50

5) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Angry

B) Optimistic

C) Motivated

D) Empowered

6 / 50

6) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fear of retaliation

B) Being rude

C) Ignoring the legal consequences

D) Fighting back

7 / 50

7) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) A win-win

B) Compromised

C) A spin-off

D) Empathic

8 / 50

8) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Dodging eye contact

B) only paying partial attention to the other person

C) Facing the other person directly

D) gesturing with open palms

9 / 50

9) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to talk their way out of the situation

B) Try to force their way past the employee

C) Tell the manager

D) Hold until the employee moves

10 / 50

10) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Not providing relevant information

B) Being kept waiting

C) Being fearful of the consequences

D) Being disregarded

11 / 50

11) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

B) Having strong personal values

C) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

D) Being unsure of what action is taken

12 / 50

12) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) It empowers the customer to take charge

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

13 / 50

13) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Assertiveness

B) Frustration

C) Empathy

D) Awareness

14 / 50

14) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Capable

C) Assertive

D) Patronised

15 / 50

15) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Assertiveness

B) Patience

C) Frustration

D) Violence

16 / 50

16) Empathy means being able to:

A) Encourage another person’s perception

B) Ignore someone else's opinion

C) Share someone else's opinion

D) Understand another person’s point of view

17 / 50

17) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

B) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

C) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

D) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

18 / 50

18) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Recognition

B) Motivation

C) Humiliation

D) Stimulus

19 / 50

19) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Child Line

B) Samaritans

C) Victim Support

D) Crime Stoppers

20 / 50

20) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Advising to the customer

B) Speaking to the customer seriously

C) Being assertive towards the customer

D) Not listening to the customer

21 / 50

21) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Less

B) Approachable

C) Reasonable

D) Mandatory

22 / 50

22) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Different cultures

B) Different eye colour

C) Various clothes

D) Diverse hair colour

23 / 50

23) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) By criticising the actions of the customer

B) Being bossy towards the customer

C) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

D) Showing empathy towards the customer

24 / 50

24) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) Make a positive impression on your manager

B) To pick up trends

C) To get increase in salary

D) To get a promotion

25 / 50

25) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

B) It minimizes the chances of a risk

C) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

D) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

26 / 50

26) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

B) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

C) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

D) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

27 / 50

27) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

B) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

C) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

D) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

28 / 50

28) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Loses face

B) Shocked

C) Treated like a valued guest

D) Made to feel welcome

29 / 50

29) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Bully at them and tell jokes

B) Begin to use abusive personal language

C) Stand further away from the employee

D) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

30 / 50

30) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) The customer departing

B) Have your driver's license suspended

C) An argument

D) Loss of your employment

31 / 50

31) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Political barrier

B) Physical barrier

C) Psychological barrier

D) Social barrier

32 / 50

32) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

B) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

33 / 50

33) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

B) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

C) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

D) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

34 / 50

34) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Poor communication

B) Persuasive communication

C) Concise communication

D) Effective communication

35 / 50

35) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

B) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

36 / 50

36) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will continue to perform well

B) May get disciplined

C) Will avoid being disciplined

D) Can ignore injury

37 / 50

37) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

B) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

C) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

D) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

38 / 50

38) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and psychological

B) Rational and emotional

C) Rational and social

D) Irrational and emotional

39 / 50

39) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

B) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

C) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

D) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

40 / 50

40) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

B) Force to stop an argument

C) Take one to another room to separate them

D) Threaten to call the police

41 / 50

41) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Develop a rapport with the customer

B) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

C) Note down the instructions

D) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

42 / 50

42) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) Will ignore being disciplined

B) Will still do a nice job

C) May get disciplined

D) might avoid injury

43 / 50

43) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

B) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

C) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

D) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

44 / 50

44) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

B) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

C) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

D) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

45 / 50

45) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Insulted

B) Comfortable

C) Appreciated

D) Нарру

46 / 50

46) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak aggressively

B) Speak calmly

C) Speak loudly

D) Speak quickly

47 / 50

47) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Suitable

B) Reasonable

C) Mandatory

D) Minimal

48 / 50

48) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their hearing tunes into the threat

B) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

C) Their thought processes become more logical

D) Their heartbeat decelerates

49 / 50

49) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

C) The conflict will remain unresolved

D) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

50 / 50

50) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You might be fired from your workplace

B) The customer might bring his friends

C) For the safety of yourself and others

D) You cannot guarantee victory

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) Respectable

B) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

C) Reasonable

D) Rational

2 / 69

2) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) A taxi queue

B) The time

C) What is the number of attendees

D) That the individual is conscious and breathing

3 / 69

3) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

B) Whilst the witnesses are still present

C) Within 72 hours of the incident

D) As soon as practically possible

4 / 69

4) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Having a regular pulse

B) Bleeding from the skin

C) Being cold and calmly to touch

D) Excessive Sweating

5 / 69

5) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Physical intervention is illegal

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Physical intervention is used before anything else

D) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

6 / 69

6) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

B) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

C) Hold them down until they calm down

D) Ignore any signs of medical issues

7 / 69

7) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

B) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

C) Defensive skills are responsive

D) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

8 / 69

8) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Paying less

B) Promotion to head door supervisor

C) Enhanced social media presence

D) Civil litigation from the injured party

9 / 69

9) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Tactics to keep yourself safe

B) Techniques which isolate the individual

C) Use of handcuffs and ties

D) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

10 / 69

10) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Mental health issues

B) Hypothermia

C) Hypohydration

D) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

11 / 69

11) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

B) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

C) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

D) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

12 / 69

12) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) What outfit the subject is wearing

B) The number of followers the subject has no social media

C) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

D) The threat posted by the subject

13 / 69

13) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Control and restraint

B) Use of self-defense weapon

C) Violence

D) Conflict management

14 / 69

14) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

B) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

C) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

D) The door supervisor should use communication skills

15 / 69

15) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

B) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

C) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

D) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

16 / 69

16) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

B) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

C) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

D) When the incident occurred

17 / 69

17) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

B) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

C) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

D) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

18 / 69

18) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Calmness

B) Low body temperature

C) Low blood pressure

D) Positional asphyxia

19 / 69

19) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

B) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

C) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

D) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

20 / 69

20) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Agreeing to requests

B) Having a low pulse rate

C) Having a low breathing rate

D) Showing bizarre behaviour

21 / 69

21) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Guidelines for restraining another person.

B) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

C) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

D) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

22 / 69

22) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

B) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

C) Staff should not write anything down

D) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

23 / 69

23) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

B) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

C) Handling the individual independently.

D) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

24 / 69

24) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

B) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

C) Determine who is accountable for the incident

D) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

25 / 69

25) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

B) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

C) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

D) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

26 / 69

26) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should return to work immediately

B) Staff should be given support

C) Staff should get a pay rise

D) Staff should get a warning

27 / 69

27) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) An increased risk of harm

B) An increase in venue insurance costs

C) A pay increase

D) A promotion for all involved

28 / 69

28) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Face up (supine)

B) Face down (prone)

C) Standing non- restrictive restraint

D) Standing restrictive restraint

29 / 69

29) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

B) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

C) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

D) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

30 / 69

30) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) 3-point restraint

B) Head lock

C) Viable safety restraint

D) Prone Restraint

31 / 69

31) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) May lose interest in the physical intervention

B) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

C) May feel threatened by others

D) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

32 / 69

32) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

B) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

C) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

D) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

33 / 69

33) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Use of handcuffs or ties

B) Conflict management skills

C) Techniques which isolate the individual

D) Tactics to keep yourself safe

34 / 69

34) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Any restraint that impairs breathing

B) Not using physical restraints

C) Calmly talking to customers

D) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

35 / 69

35) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

B) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

C) Strength, and safety

D) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

36 / 69

36) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) Control and restraint

B) Conflict management

C) The use of a weapon

D) The use of pepper spray

37 / 69

37) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

B) It could impair hearing

C) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

D) It could impair breathing

38 / 69

38) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Medical distress

B) Law enforcement presence

C) Equipped with weapons

D) Self-inflicted injuries

39 / 69

39) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) An inability to breathe

B) Unrestricted breathing

C) A lower heart rate

D) A lower body temperature

40 / 69

40) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) Method of restraint

B) Skillset of the subject

C) Skillset of the door supervisor

D) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

41 / 69

41) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) An upgrade for all involved

B) An increased risk of harm

C) A rise in venue insurance costs

D) Increase in compensation

42 / 69

42) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

B) Legislation may change

C) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

D) All employers ask for references

43 / 69

43) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

B) Chance of being uploaded to social media

C) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

D) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

44 / 69

44) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

B) Put the customer in the recovery position

C) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

D) Call for help

45 / 69

45) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

B) Get rid of any evidence

C) Gather statements from all witnesses

D) Safeguard evidence

46 / 69

46) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

B) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

C) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

D) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

47 / 69

47) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

B) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

C) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

D) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

48 / 69

48) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) Legislation may change

B) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

C) All employers ask for it

D) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

49 / 69

49) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Loss of wages of those involved

B) Advancement of the people concerned

C) Suffering endured by the people involved.

D) Criminal prosecution of those involved

50 / 69

50) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

B) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

C) Decide who requires further training in restraint

D) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

51 / 69

51) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Is advertised

B) Make more money at the venue

C) Could lose their license

D) Promotes safety

52 / 69

52) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Martial arts

B) Unnecessary force

C) Handcuffs

D) Effective communication

53 / 69

53) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

B) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

C) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

D) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

54 / 69

54) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

B) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

C) Withdraw/De-escalate

D) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

55 / 69

55) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Customer may become impatient

B) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

C) Customer may become easier to deal with

D) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

56 / 69

56) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) Gender identity of the person

B) Place of the intervention

C) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

D) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

57 / 69

57) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) You are more vulnerable on the floor

B) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

C) You should always maintain an authoritative position

D) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

58 / 69

58) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Low temperature

B) Tranquility

C) Low blood pressure

D) Unexpected or increase strength

59 / 69

59) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Self-destructive behavior

B) Medical distress

C) Improvised weapons being carried

D) Law enforcement activity

60 / 69

60) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Physical intervention is used before anything else

B) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

C) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

D) Physical intervention is illegal

61 / 69

61) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Taken into custody

B) Prohibited from entering the venue

C) Exposed to further injury or harm

D) Forced to leave the venue

62 / 69

62) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

B) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

C) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

D) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

63 / 69

63) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

B) Lowered blood pressure

C) Lowered body temperature

D) Positional asphyxia

64 / 69

64) What does the word Static mean?

A) In the right state

B) In a defensive state

C) In a state ready to be physical

D) Unchanging

65 / 69

65) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

B) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

C) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

D) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

66 / 69

66) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

B) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

C) Encourage secondary control alternatives

D) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

67 / 69

67) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person has stolen property hidden on them

B) The person is drunk or on drugs

C) The persons age, size and weight

D) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

68 / 69

68) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

B) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

C) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

D) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

69 / 69

69) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Verbal escalation

B) Handcuffs

C) CCTV

D) Physical aggression.

Your score is

The average score is 69%

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