Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

/99

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

2 / 99

2) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Freezing and surrendering

B) Searching for a crowded area

C) Calmly walking away

D) Fight or flight

3 / 99

3) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

B) List the names of staff present

C) State the total number of visitors

D) Recount only the parts that seem important

4 / 99

4) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only general instructions without specific details

B) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

C) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

D) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

5 / 99

5) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

B) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

C) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

6 / 99

6) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

B) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

C) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

D) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

7 / 99

7) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Integrity

C) Indifference

D) Dishonesty

8 / 99

8) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

C) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

D) To gather information about the offense

9 / 99

9) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Are an employee running late for a meeting

B) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

C) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

D) Might be conducting suspicious activities

10 / 99

10) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) An individual who appears disoriented

11 / 99

11) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Directing security to a distressed individual

B) Taking part in group activities with friends

C) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

D) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

12 / 99

12) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

D) To add a formal tone to the conversation

13 / 99

13) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Clear and concise communication

B) Offering physical assistance

C) Providing immediate medical attention

D) Removing them from the premises

14 / 99

14) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

B) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

C) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

15 / 99

15) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Providing legal representation to businesses

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

D) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

16 / 99

16) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Adding more heat

B) Removing the carbon dioxide

C) Removing the fuel

D) Adding more oxygen

17 / 99

17) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) SIA standards and the company's established values

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Personal preferences for handling situations

18 / 99

18) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

C) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

D) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

19 / 99

19) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It increases individual recognition

B) It means fewer security staff are needed

C) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

D) It leads to more competition among staff

20 / 99

20) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of first aid kits

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of hazardous materials

21 / 99

21) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

B) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

C) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

D) To avoid potential liability for future issues

22 / 99

22) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Reading a text message aloud

B) Using hand gestures

C) Speaking clearly to someone

D) Making a phone call

23 / 99

23) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

B) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

C) Engaging the person with professional customer service

D) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

24 / 99

24) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

D) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

25 / 99

25) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Increased exposure to potential violence

B) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

C) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

D) Reduced access to basic health support

26 / 99

26) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

B) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

C) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

D) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

27 / 99

27) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Smiling or frowning

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Writing a polite email

28 / 99

28) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Call their superior before taking any actions

C) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

D) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

29 / 99

29) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

B) To improve employee productivity and performance

C) To limit employee movement around the premises

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

30 / 99

30) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

D) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

31 / 99

31) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

32 / 99

32) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

B) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

C) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

33 / 99

33) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Maintenance person

B) Personal trainer

C) Vehicle immobilizer

D) Customer support agent

34 / 99

34) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

D) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

35 / 99

35) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

C) Directly confront the individual

D) Contact the transport's customer service team

36 / 99

36) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

B) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

C) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

D) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

37 / 99

37) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

B) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

C) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

38 / 99

38) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Promote high standards within the industry

B) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

C) Guarantee low prices for security services

D) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

39 / 99

39) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

B) Requesting assistance with directions

C) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

D) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

40 / 99

40) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

B) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

C) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

D) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

41 / 99

41) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Verbal warning from their employer

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Requirement to attend additional training

42 / 99

42) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Reducing opportunities for crimes

D) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

43 / 99

43) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When arranging office furniture

B) When interacting with hostile customers

C) When scheduling breaks for security staff

D) When discussing personal matters outside of work

44 / 99

44) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A colleague asking for help with a task

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A manager requesting information

D) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

45 / 99

45) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Only document it if they require medical treatment

C) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

D) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

46 / 99

46) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Being confrontational

B) Speaking calmly

C) Speaking in an aggressive tone

D) Writing down instructions

47 / 99

47) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

B) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

C) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

D) To provide contact details for medical services

48 / 99

48) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Giving the customer all of the information at once

B) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

C) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

D) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

49 / 99

49) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Training employees in fire safety procedures

B) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

C) Providing first aid to injured staff

D) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

50 / 99

50) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is possible but not likely

B) When it is unlikely but still possible

C) When it is highly improbable

D) When it is almost certain to happen

51 / 99

51) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is likely

B) An attack is possible but unlikely

C) An attack is highly likely

D) An attack is extremely unlikely

52 / 99

52) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

B) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

C) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

D) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

53 / 99

53) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

B) To show authority and control over the situation

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

54 / 99

54) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

B) Planning out the route to the venue

C) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

D) Reviewing old criminal offenses

55 / 99

55) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

B) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

C) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

56 / 99

56) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside work

B) Dress code policies

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Potential promotions within the company

57 / 99

57) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

58 / 99

58) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Enhanced team dynamics

B) Optimized focus on work projects

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Developing negative coping mechanisms

59 / 99

59) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Decrease in social interactions

B) Changes in behavior

C) Positive self-esteem

D) Consistent injuries

60 / 99

60) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

B) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

C) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

D) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

61 / 99

61) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

C) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

62 / 99

62) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Have no special powers of arrest

63 / 99

63) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

B) Immediately evacuate the building

C) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

D) Activate the fire alarm

64 / 99

64) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Attending an event with a group of friends

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Being under the influence of alcohol

65 / 99

65) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Preventing interactions with the public

B) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

C) Ignoring minor incidents

D) Conducting highly visible patrols

66 / 99

66) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A package left unattended

B) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

C) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

D) A colleague having an asthma attack

67 / 99

67) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) May result in increased stress for the security operative

B) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

C) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

D) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

68 / 99

68) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Accessed only by authorized personnel

B) Shared on social media for public awareness

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Deleted after one month

69 / 99

69) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

B) Hosting private social events for the community

C) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

D) Increasing entry fees to control access

70 / 99

70) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

71 / 99

71) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To avoid complaints from individuals

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

D) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

72 / 99

72) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual accountability

B) It promotes communication and collaboration

C) It enables individuals to work independently

D) It encourages competition among colleagues

73 / 99

73) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

B) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

74 / 99

74) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

B) To avoid supporting each individual customer

C) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

D) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

75 / 99

75) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) A noise complaint

B) Parking offenses

C) An assault

D) Littering

76 / 99

76) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A heart attack

B) An epileptic seizure

C) A slip on a wet floor

D) A software update on a laptop

77 / 99

77) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break durations

B) Documenting found items

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

78 / 99

78) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

B) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

79 / 99

79) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Hacking into a company's computer systems

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Use of firearms

D) Release of dangerous substances

80 / 99

80) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Alert the appropriate emergency services

B) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

C) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

D) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

81 / 99

81) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

B) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

C) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

D) Something that might cause occasional distractions

82 / 99

82) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A search register

B) An accident report

C) A duty sheet

D) A visitor log

83 / 99

83) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to contact emergency services

B) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

84 / 99

84) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To avoid working extra hours

B) To improve the reputation of the venue

C) To make personal notes about customers

D) To comply with legal requirements

85 / 99

85) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Ignore their complaints directly

B) Deny there's any problem

C) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

D) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

86 / 99

86) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

B) Photograph it and then throw it away

C) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

D) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

87 / 99

87) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Guiding someone to a safe place

B) Depriving someone of their freedom

C) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

D) Informing someone of their legal rights

88 / 99

88) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To submit complaints against security personnel

B) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

C) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

D) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

89 / 99

89) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Common illnesses among employees

B) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

C) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

D) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

90 / 99

90) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

B) The state brings the cases against individuals

C) Local councils handle all the cases

D) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

91 / 99

91) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

D) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

92 / 99

92) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

B) Training security staff for private companies

C) Offering financial support to security contractors

D) Regulating the security industry through licensing

93 / 99

93) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

C) Proceed to the assembly point

D) Check the building for any missing people

94 / 99

94) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A notice posted on a door

B) A facial expression showing confusion

C) Listening to a colleague's opinion

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

95 / 99

95) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

B) Notify the victim's family before taking action

C) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

D) Separate the victim from the attacker

96 / 99

96) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Social media platforms

B) Entertainment websites and apps

C) Colleagues and management

D) Online gaming communities

97 / 99

97) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Having a discussion with a family member

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

98 / 99

98) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

B) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

C) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

99 / 99

99) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely overlook the incident and move on

B) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

C) To review an incident but take no reflective action

D) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

Your score is

The average score is 65%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of hazardous materials

2 / 92

2) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

3 / 92

3) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

B) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

C) People freezing in place due to shock

D) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

4 / 92

4) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To review an incident without taking reflective action

C) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

D) To help them avoid discussing the incident

5 / 92

5) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Sprinkler system

B) Fire blanket

C) Fire hose

D) Water

6 / 92

6) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

B) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

D) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

7 / 92

7) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

B) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

C) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

D) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

8 / 92

8) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

B) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

C) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

D) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

9 / 92

9) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Denying that there is any issue

B) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

C) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

D) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

10 / 92

10) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

C) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

11 / 92

11) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

B) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

D) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

12 / 92

12) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) CO2 Gas

B) Water

C) Foam

D) Wet chemical

13 / 92

13) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

B) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

C) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

D) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

14 / 92

14) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

B) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

15 / 92

15) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

B) A child playing outdoors with friends

C) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

D) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

16 / 92

16) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

B) Preparing to use physical restraints

C) Improving team morale

D) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

17 / 92

17) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

B) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

C) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

D) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

18 / 92

18) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Clear

B) Complete

C) Concise

D) Conclusion

19 / 92

19) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Try to administer first aid without training

B) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

20 / 92

20) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red circle with a line through it

B) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

C) A blue square with a cross

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

21 / 92

21) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

B) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

C) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

D) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

22 / 92

22) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Attending an event with a group of friends

D) Having a clear sense of direction

23 / 92

23) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Writing a polite email

C) Smiling or frowning

D) Sending a text message

24 / 92

24) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

B) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

C) Any previous self-protection training they had

D) What they observed and their names

25 / 92

25) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Allocation of lunch breaks

B) Access to company resources

C) Compensation and employee benefits

D) Participation in team-building activities

26 / 92

26) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

B) A manager requesting information

C) A colleague seeking help with a task

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

27 / 92

27) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

C) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

D) Check the building for any missing people

28 / 92

28) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

B) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

C) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

D) Inform a manager and record the incident.

29 / 92

29) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A power outage

B) A water leak

C) A gas leak

D) A fire

30 / 92

30) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

B) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

C) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

D) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

31 / 92

31) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

B) Notify the victim's family before taking action

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

32 / 92

32) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Assisting a lost individual

B) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

C) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

D) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

33 / 92

33) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Ensuring security personnel leave first

B) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

C) Blocking access to all staircases

D) Locking all entrances and exits

34 / 92

34) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Only report it if a crime occurs

D) Call the transport's customer service team

35 / 92

35) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

B) To inform the media about the arrest

C) To immediately leave the scene

D) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

36 / 92

36) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Recruiting new security officers

B) A security benefits scheme for employees

C) The approved contractor scheme

D) Offering discounts to security companies

37 / 92

37) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) A verbal warning from their employer

B) Temporary suspension from their job

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Civil or criminal prosecution

38 / 92

38) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

B) To avoid attending required safety training.

C) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

D) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

39 / 92

39) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Effective practices

B) Financial bonuses

C) Good team-building activities

D) New opportunities for equipment

40 / 92

40) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

B) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

C) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

D) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

41 / 92

41) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

42 / 92

42) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

C) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

D) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

43 / 92

43) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for awareness

B) Reviewed by any staff member

C) Deleted after one month

D) Accessible only by authorized personnel

44 / 92

44) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

B) It can only be used indoors

C) It can only be used outdoors

D) It cannot record any criminal activities

45 / 92

45) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

B) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

C) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

D) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

46 / 92

46) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Contacting emergency services.

B) Investigating the cause before taking action.

C) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

D) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

47 / 92

47) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Organizing private gatherings within the community

B) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

C) Increasing entry fees for access control

D) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

48 / 92

48) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Check the fire extinguishers

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

49 / 92

49) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor logs

B) Documenting found items

C) Recording shift instructions and break times

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

50 / 92

50) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

C) High-visibility patrols

D) Preventing interactions with the public

51 / 92

51) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A software update on a laptop

C) A heart attack

D) A slip on a wet floor

52 / 92

52) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Managing public relations for private companies

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

53 / 92

53) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Citizens Advice Bureau

B) Samaritans

C) Trade unions

D) The local community center

54 / 92

54) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of common colds among employees

B) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

C) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

D) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

55 / 92

55) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

C) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

D) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

56 / 92

56) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It ensures no one will challenge actions

B) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

C) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

D) It prevents involvement from local authorities

57 / 92

57) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and tracking individuals

B) Engaging in group activities with friends

C) Guiding security towards a distressed person

D) Offering aid to people in distress

58 / 92

58) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) SIA standards and the company's values

B) Instructions from colleagues

C) Customer wishes and demands

D) Personal preferences in handling situations

59 / 92

59) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Recount only the seemingly important parts

B) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

C) State the total number of visitors

D) List the names of all staff present

60 / 92

60) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It reduces the need for training and oversight

B) It increases risks for both staff and the public

C) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

D) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

61 / 92

61) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Unlikely but conceivable

B) Possible but unlikely

C) Highly improbable

D) Nearly certain

62 / 92

62) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Manned Guarding

B) Delivery driver

C) Office receptionist

D) Private investigator

63 / 92

63) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

B) To avoid potential liability for issues

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

64 / 92

64) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

C) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

D) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

65 / 92

65) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can detain individuals until they confess

B) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

C) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

D) Have no special powers of arrest

66 / 92

66) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals initiate cases in court

B) Local councils manage all cases

C) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

D) The state brings charges against individuals

67 / 92

67) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It eliminates the need for other security measures

C) It removes the need to call emergency services

D) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

68 / 92

68) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

B) Limited access to basic health support.

C) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

D) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

69 / 92

69) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

B) The release of hazardous substances.

C) Theft of sensitive information.

D) The use of firearms.

70 / 92

70) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual who appears disoriented

D) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

71 / 92

71) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

B) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

72 / 92

72) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class A

B) Class F

C) Class D

D) Class B

73 / 92

73) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

B) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

C) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

D) To question the suspect about the offense

74 / 92

74) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Requesting assistance from the police

B) Using local support organizations

C) Booking a taxi for the individual

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

75 / 92

75) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review their statement and the relevant case details

B) Avoid communication with their legal representative

C) Wait until the last minute to arrive

D) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

76 / 92

76) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Assault

B) Murder

C) Burglary

D) Breach of contract

77 / 92

77) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

B) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

C) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

D) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

78 / 92

78) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

B) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) To reduce security visibility to the public

D) To avoid any staff interactions

79 / 92

79) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

B) Water, heat, and oxygen

C) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

D) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

80 / 92

80) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside of work

B) Dress code policies

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Potential promotions within the company

81 / 92

81) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Proceed to question the individual

B) Detain the individual

C) Escort the individual off the premises

D) Immediately search the individual

82 / 92

82) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

B) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

C) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

D) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

83 / 92

83) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 300 meters.

B) Approximately 200 meters.

C) Approximately 100 meters.

D) Approximately 400 meters.

84 / 92

84) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When managing office furniture layout

C) When planning breaks for security staff

D) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

85 / 92

85) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

B) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

C) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

D) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

86 / 92

86) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It fosters communication and cooperation

B) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

C) It allows individuals to work in isolation

D) It increases individual responsibility

87 / 92

87) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Preserved and handed over to the police

B) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

C) Disposed of and logged

D) Photographed and then discarded

88 / 92

88) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Asking security staff for directions

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

89 / 92

89) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Stop and search for the fire's source

B) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Sound the alarm

90 / 92

90) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving butane gas

B) A fire involving hot cooking oils

C) A fire involving wood or rubber

D) A fire involving petrol or paint

91 / 92

91) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Being argumentative.

B) Providing written instructions.

C) Using an aggressive tone.

D) Speaking in a calm manner.

92 / 92

92) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Reducing communication between team members

B) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

C) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

D) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

B) are an employee running late for a meeting

C) might be conducting suspicious activities

D) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

2 / 64

2) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

B) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) may result in increased stress for the security operative

D) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

3 / 64

3) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) a police complaint

B) an assault

C) parking offences

D) littering

4 / 64

4) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Customer support agent

B) Maintenance person

C) Vehicle immobiliser

D) Personal trainer

5 / 64

5) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

B) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

C) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

D) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

6 / 64

6) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Planning out the route to the venue

B) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

C) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

D) Reviewing old criminal offences

7 / 64

7) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To make the communication sound more complex

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

8 / 64

8) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

B) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

C) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

D) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

9 / 64

9) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

10 / 64

10) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) reduce security visibility to the public

B) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) avoid any staff interactions

D) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

11 / 64

11) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

D) Try to administer first aid without training

12 / 64

12) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Engaging the person with professional customer service

B) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

C) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

13 / 64

13) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Indifference

B) Dishonesty

C) Aggression

D) Integrity

14 / 64

14) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

B) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

D) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

15 / 64

15) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

B) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

C) To show authority and control over the situation

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

16 / 64

16) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Only document it if they require medical treatment

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

17 / 64

17) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

D) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

18 / 64

18) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

B) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

C) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

D) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

19 / 64

19) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

20 / 64

20) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A package left unattended

B) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

C) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

D) A colleague having an asthma attack

21 / 64

21) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

22 / 64

22) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

B) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

C) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

D) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

23 / 64

23) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

B) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

C) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

D) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

24 / 64

24) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To estimate costs for safety equipment

B) To improve employee productivity and performance

C) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

D) To limit employee movement around the premises

25 / 64

25) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Foam

B) Wet chemical

C) Water

D) CO2 Gas

26 / 64

26) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) The approved contractor scheme

B) Offering discounts to security companies

C) Recruiting new security officers

D) A security benefits scheme for employees

27 / 64

27) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Sound the alarm

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

28 / 64

28) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

B) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

29 / 64

29) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Consistent injuries

B) Changes in behaviour

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Positive self-esteem

30 / 64

30) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) Citizens Advice Bureau

C) Samaritans

D) The local community centre

31 / 64

31) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a tourist group

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Having a discussion with a family member

D) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

32 / 64

32) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

B) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

C) To avoid contact with any key personnel

D) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

33 / 64

33) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

D) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

34 / 64

34) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

B) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

C) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

D) Follow the company's procedures and policies

35 / 64

35) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

C) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

D) Lift the load using the back muscles

36 / 64

36) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

D) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

37 / 64

37) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) better understand how to escalate situations

B) boost team morale

C) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

D) recognise areas for improvement

38 / 64

38) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

39 / 64

39) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

B) Booking a taxi for the individual

C) Using local support organisations

D) Requesting assistance from the police

40 / 64

40) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child playing in a field with friends

B) A child being closely supervised by parents

C) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

D) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

41 / 64

41) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

B) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

C) Moving people into a secure area in a building

D) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

42 / 64

42) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Reading a text message aloud

C) Using hand gestures

D) Making a phone call

43 / 64

43) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

44 / 64

44) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

C) promote high standards within the industry

D) guarantee low prices for security services

45 / 64

45) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Enhanced team dynamics

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Optimised focus on work projects

46 / 64

46) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A red circle with a line through it

B) A blue square with a cross

C) A white circle with a black cross

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

47 / 64

47) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Burglary

B) Breach of contract

C) Assault

D) Murder

48 / 64

48) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

B) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To gather information about the offence

49 / 64

49) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A visitor log

B) An accident report

C) A duty sheet

D) A search register

50 / 64

50) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Medical attention

B) Clear communication

C) Removal from the premises

D) Physical assistance

51 / 64

51) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

B) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

C) Giving the customer all of the information at once

D) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

52 / 64

52) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

B) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

C) It decreases the need for training and supervision

D) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

53 / 64

53) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To make personal notes about customers

B) To comply with the law

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To improve the reputation of the venue

54 / 64

54) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Reducing opportunities for crimes

C) Promoting competition among local businesses

D) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) Listening to a colleague's opinion

B) A security operative speaking to a customer

C) A facial expression showing confusion

D) A notice posted on a door

56 / 64

56) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is possible but unlikely

B) An attack is likely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is highly likely

57 / 64

57) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Removing the carbon dioxide

B) Adding more heat

C) Removing the fuel

D) Adding more oxygen

58 / 64

58) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

C) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

59 / 64

59) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is only required for large security firms

B) Licensing is optional for all security companies

C) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

D) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

60 / 64

60) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Pay and benefits

B) Team-building activities

C) Use of company resources

D) Lunch breaks

61 / 64

61) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To escort someone to safety

B) To question someone about a crime

C) To inform someone of their rights

D) To take away someone's liberty

62 / 64

62) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 100 metres

B) 300 metres

C) 200 metres

D) 400 metres

63 / 64

63) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Any disease related to the workplace

B) Only serious contagious diseases

C) Cutting an individual to an employee

D) Any disease not related to the workplace

64 / 64

64) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

B) Carry search alone in a private area

C) Record search details in your incident book

D) Inform your manager

2 / 70

2) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A searchlight

B) A plastic detector

C) An archway metal detector (AMD)

D) A search wand

3 / 70

3) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Gaming or gambling without a licence

B) Drug dealing

C) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

D) Solicitation

4 / 70

4) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) Ask the venue’s manager

B) explore on the internet

C) inqure a member of the bar staff

D) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

5 / 70

5) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A customer

B) A door supervisor

C) The manager

D) A member of staff

6 / 70

6) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

B) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

C) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

D) Obtain person's permission

7 / 70

7) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) Ejection of a customer

B) Drunk people outside the venue

C) Ejection of a customer

D) An incident occurring inside the venue

8 / 70

8) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

B) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

C) The day-to-day operation of the premises

D) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

9 / 70

9) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class A

B) Class C

C) Class B

D) Class D

10 / 70

10) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

B) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

C) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

D) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

11 / 70

11) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Use of toilets

B) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

C) Consumption of food

D) Loud music

12 / 70

12) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) An offensive weapon

B) A personal weapon

C) A harmful weapon

D) A dangerous weapon

13 / 70

13) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Monitoring drink sales performance

B) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

C) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

D) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

14 / 70

14) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Notify the manager

B) Reject their entry

C) Search anyway

D) Ring to the police

15 / 70

15) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Amphetamines

B) Heroin

C) Tranquilisers

D) Cannabis

16 / 70

16) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Power of closure

B) Confiscate musical equipment

C) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

D) Set new maximum occupancy limits

17 / 70

17) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

B) Dispose in the general waste bin

C) Seal it in a plastic bag

D) Flush it down the toilet

18 / 70

18) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

B) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

C) Keep customers entertained while waiting

D) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

19 / 70

19) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Safety goggles

B) Face shield

C) Ear defenders

D) Gloves

20 / 70

20) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Loot

B) Burglary

C) Theft

D) Sabotage

21 / 70

21) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

B) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

C) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

D) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

22 / 70

22) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Forensic

B) Documentary

C) Circumstantial

D) Hearsay

23 / 70

23) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Call the emergency services

B) Inform your supervisor

C) Destroy it yourself

D) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

24 / 70

24) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) National Threat Level information

B) By local MPs

C) Social Media outlets

D) Local Radio

25 / 70

25) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Unlawful entry

B) Criminal damage

C) Offensive behavior

D) Trespass

26 / 70

26) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

B) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

C) They identify those who have been banned.

D) They can be used by management for marketing

27 / 70

27) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) minimize the bar queue time

B) Show what a great venue you have

C) promote customer to interact with each other

D) Improve customers’ safety

28 / 70

28) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

B) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

C) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

D) Could become a victim of a crime

29 / 70

29) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They can be used by management for marketing

B) They identify those who have been banned

C) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

D) They help to record all customers’ faces

30 / 70

30) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) Ensuring admission policy is followed

B) Escorting customers home

C) Enforcing parking fines

D) The revenue of the business you work for

31 / 70

31) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) They may not like the drinks served inside

B) It helps customers to plan their evening

C) It may help to reduce potential conflict

D) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

32 / 70

32) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) When the venue has a large queue

B) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

C) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

D) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

33 / 70

33) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Public safety regulation

B) Licensing federation

C) Licensing objectives

D) Venue security measures

34 / 70

34) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Contact the licensing officer

B) Contact the venue’s head office

C) Contact the emergency service

D) Record the incident using a mobile phone

35 / 70

35) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Increase customer numbers

B) Decrease customer numbers

C) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

D) Increase the likelihood of conflict

36 / 70

36) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

B) Random individuals are searched

C) Specific individuals are searched

D) All individuals is searched

37 / 70

37) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Incident questionnaire

B) Visitor log

C) Incident log

D) Incident report

38 / 70

38) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

B) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

C) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

D) Help prevent complaints from local residents

39 / 70

39) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Unpredictable behavior

B) Powder traces under the nose

C) Falling sleep

D) Dilated pupils

40 / 70

40) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

B) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

C) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

D) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

41 / 70

41) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) A Serious assault outside the venue

B) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

C) An argument between a couple inside the venue

D) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

42 / 70

42) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

B) A group of females chatting with a group of males

C) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

D) A female taking selfies with a male

43 / 70

43) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Common assault

B) Rape

C) Grievous bodily harm

D) Trespass

44 / 70

44) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Actual Bodily Harm

B) Common Assault

C) Grievous Bodily Harm

D) Grand Bodily Harm

45 / 70

45) The types of searches are:

A) National, Private, Public

B) Thorough, X-Ray, General

C) General, Handpicked, Race related

D) General, Random, Specific

46 / 70

46) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Darts

B) Pool

C) Roulette

D) Chess

47 / 70

47) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Being aware

B) Drug use

C) Drug dealing

D) Being intoxicated

48 / 70

48) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Drug use

B) Nervousness

C) Exposure to carbon monoxide

D) Fear

49 / 70

49) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

B) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

C) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

D) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

50 / 70

50) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Make all venues aware of the incident

B) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

C) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

D) Follow the local seize and secure policy

51 / 70

51) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

B) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

C) Seize the item and deny them to enter

D) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

52 / 70

52) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Writing the admission policy

B) Ensuring the premises remains full

C) Advertising venue theme nights

D) Promoting house rules

53 / 70

53) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Make way for VIPs

B) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

C) Withhold information from customers

D) Investigate each customer in detail.

54 / 70

54) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) How many radios are available for use at the premises

B) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

C) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

D) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

55 / 70

55) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

B) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

C) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

D) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

56 / 70

56) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Incidental

B) Direct

C) Forensic

D) Hearsay

57 / 70

57) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

B) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

C) Get permission from the customer

D) Inform management that a search is in progress

58 / 70

58) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

B) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

C) How many radios are available for use at the premises

D) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

59 / 70

59) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

B) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

C) Document of those responsible in your notebook

D) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

60 / 70

60) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

B) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

C) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

D) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

61 / 70

61) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Inform the police of each event

B) Photograph customers on entry

C) Ban bags at the venue

D) Search individuals on entry

62 / 70

62) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Trespass, robbery and theft

B) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

C) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

D) Assault, Theft, and Drug

63 / 70

63) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) An archway metal detector (AMD)

B) A search wand

C) A searchlight

D) A plastic detector

64 / 70

64) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Understanding customers

B) Approachable customers

C) Violent behaviour

D) Being monitored by CCTV

65 / 70

65) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) Whilst witnessing an incident

B) After consulting with supervisors

C) Only in block capital letters

D) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

66 / 70

66) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) Facial hair

B) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

C) The race of the individual

D) The group of friends around an individual

67 / 70

67) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) In the regular trash container

B) Clinical Waste

C) In the broken glass bin

D) In the street refuse bin

68 / 70

68) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

B) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

C) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

D) Call an ambulance

69 / 70

69) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) When barriers are moved by customers

B) At all times to ensure safe queuing

C) When the numbers exceed 100

D) When a problem is reported by someone

70 / 70

70) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

B) 20-year prison sentence

C) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

D) 12-year prison sentence and fine

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Empathy means being able to:

A) Understand another person’s point of view

B) Share someone else's opinion

C) Ignore someone else's opinion

D) Encourage another person’s perception

2 / 50

2) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak quickly

B) Speak calmly

C) Speak loudly

D) Speak aggressively

3 / 50

3) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

B) It empowers the customer to take charge

C) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

4 / 50

4) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

B) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

C) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

D) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

5 / 50

5) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Insulted

B) Comfortable

C) Appreciated

D) Нарру

6 / 50

6) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Persuasive communication

B) Concise communication

C) Effective communication

D) Poor communication

7 / 50

7) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

D) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

8 / 50

8) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

B) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

C) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

D) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

9 / 50

9) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Psychological barrier

B) Political barrier

C) Physical barrier

D) Social barrier

10 / 50

10) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

B) Note down the instructions

C) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

D) Develop a rapport with the customer

11 / 50

11) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Different eye colour

B) Different cultures

C) Diverse hair colour

D) Various clothes

12 / 50

12) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Irrational and emotional

B) Rational and emotional

C) Rational and social

D) Rational and psychological

13 / 50

13) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Child Line

B) Crime Stoppers

C) Samaritans

D) Victim Support

14 / 50

14) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Assertive

B) Capable

C) Motivated

D) Patronised

15 / 50

15) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

B) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

C) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

D) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

16 / 50

16) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

B) Exert all available force

C) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

D) Kick the customer out without warning

17 / 50

17) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) They complain to management

B) Your opinion is heard

C) The outcome is successful

D) Any direction given is followed

18 / 50

18) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Empathic

B) A win-win

C) A spin-off

D) Compromised

19 / 50

19) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Begin to use abusive personal language

B) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

C) Bully at them and tell jokes

D) Stand further away from the employee

20 / 50

20) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Can ignore injury

B) May get disciplined

C) Will avoid being disciplined

D) Will continue to perform well

21 / 50

21) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being fearful of the consequences

B) Being kept waiting

C) Not providing relevant information

D) Being disregarded

22 / 50

22) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Reasonable

B) Mandatory

C) Suitable

D) Minimal

23 / 50

23) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It minimizes the chances of a risk

B) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

C) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

D) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

24 / 50

24) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

B) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

C) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

D) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

25 / 50

25) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Approachable

B) Mandatory

C) Less

D) Reasonable

26 / 50

26) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Dodging eye contact

B) Facing the other person directly

C) gesturing with open palms

D) only paying partial attention to the other person

27 / 50

27) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

C) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

D) The conflict will remain unresolved

28 / 50

28) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fear of retaliation

B) Ignoring the legal consequences

C) Being rude

D) Fighting back

29 / 50

29) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To get increase in salary

B) Make a positive impression on your manager

C) To get a promotion

D) To pick up trends

30 / 50

30) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their hearing tunes into the threat

B) Their thought processes become more logical

C) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

D) Their heartbeat decelerates

31 / 50

31) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

B) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

C) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

D) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

32 / 50

32) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Motivation

B) Humiliation

C) Stimulus

D) Recognition

33 / 50

33) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Speaking to the customer seriously

B) Being assertive towards the customer

C) Advising to the customer

D) Not listening to the customer

34 / 50

34) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The lead security operative

B) The manager

C) The Local Council

D) The Victim Support Scheme

35 / 50

35) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Force to stop an argument

B) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

C) Take one to another room to separate them

D) Threaten to call the police

36 / 50

36) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

B) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

C) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

D) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

37 / 50

37) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Patience

B) Violence

C) Assertiveness

D) Frustration

38 / 50

38) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Frustration

B) Awareness

C) Assertiveness

D) Empathy

39 / 50

39) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Being unsure of what action is taken

B) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

C) Having strong personal values

D) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

40 / 50

40) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

B) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

C) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

D) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

41 / 50

41) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Tell the manager

B) Try to force their way past the employee

C) Hold until the employee moves

D) Try to talk their way out of the situation

42 / 50

42) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Being threatening

B) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

C) Being assertive

D) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

43 / 50

43) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) May get disciplined

B) Will ignore being disciplined

C) Will still do a nice job

D) might avoid injury

44 / 50

44) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) The customer departing

B) An argument

C) Loss of your employment

D) Have your driver's license suspended

45 / 50

45) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

B) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

46 / 50

46) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

B) Showing empathy towards the customer

C) Being bossy towards the customer

D) By criticising the actions of the customer

47 / 50

47) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

B) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

C) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

D) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

48 / 50

48) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Shocked

B) Treated like a valued guest

C) Loses face

D) Made to feel welcome

49 / 50

49) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You might be fired from your workplace

B) The customer might bring his friends

C) For the safety of yourself and others

D) You cannot guarantee victory

50 / 50

50) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Empowered

C) Angry

D) Optimistic

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

B) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

C) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

D) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

2 / 69

2) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Chance of being uploaded to social media

B) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

C) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

D) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

3 / 69

3) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

B) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

C) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

D) Defensive skills are responsive

4 / 69

4) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

B) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

C) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

D) The door supervisor should use communication skills

5 / 69

5) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Calmness

B) Positional asphyxia

C) Low blood pressure

D) Low body temperature

6 / 69

6) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

B) Respectable

C) Rational

D) Reasonable

7 / 69

7) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Physical intervention is illegal

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

D) Physical intervention is used before anything else

8 / 69

8) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) Conflict management

B) Control and restraint

C) The use of pepper spray

D) The use of a weapon

9 / 69

9) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

B) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

C) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

D) Decide who requires further training in restraint

10 / 69

10) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Use of self-defense weapon

B) Conflict management

C) Control and restraint

D) Violence

11 / 69

11) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

B) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

C) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

D) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

12 / 69

12) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Encourage secondary control alternatives

B) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

C) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

D) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

13 / 69

13) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Tactics to keep yourself safe

B) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

C) Techniques which isolate the individual

D) Use of handcuffs and ties

14 / 69

14) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) All employers ask for it

B) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

C) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

D) Legislation may change

15 / 69

15) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Paying less

B) Enhanced social media presence

C) Promotion to head door supervisor

D) Civil litigation from the injured party

16 / 69

16) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Law enforcement presence

B) Equipped with weapons

C) Self-inflicted injuries

D) Medical distress

17 / 69

17) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) Staff should not write anything down

B) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

C) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

D) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

18 / 69

18) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) All employers ask for references

B) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

C) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

D) Legislation may change

19 / 69

19) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

B) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

C) Determine who is accountable for the incident

D) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

20 / 69

20) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Any restraint that impairs breathing

B) Calmly talking to customers

C) Not using physical restraints

D) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

21 / 69

21) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) Strength, and safety

B) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

C) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

D) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

22 / 69

22) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

B) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

C) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

D) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

23 / 69

23) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

B) Customer may become impatient

C) Customer may become easier to deal with

D) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

24 / 69

24) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

B) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

C) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

D) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

25 / 69

25) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

B) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

C) You should always maintain an authoritative position

D) You are more vulnerable on the floor

26 / 69

26) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Hypohydration

B) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

C) Hypothermia

D) Mental health issues

27 / 69

27) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) A promotion for all involved

B) An increase in venue insurance costs

C) A pay increase

D) An increased risk of harm

28 / 69

28) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

B) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

C) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

D) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

29 / 69

29) What does the word Static mean?

A) Unchanging

B) In a defensive state

C) In a state ready to be physical

D) In the right state

30 / 69

30) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Forced to leave the venue

B) Exposed to further injury or harm

C) Taken into custody

D) Prohibited from entering the venue

31 / 69

31) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

B) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

C) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

D) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

32 / 69

32) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Techniques which isolate the individual

B) Use of handcuffs or ties

C) Conflict management skills

D) Tactics to keep yourself safe

33 / 69

33) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Is advertised

B) Make more money at the venue

C) Could lose their license

D) Promotes safety

34 / 69

34) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

B) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

C) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

D) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

35 / 69

35) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should get a warning

B) Staff should get a pay rise

C) Staff should be given support

D) Staff should return to work immediately

36 / 69

36) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

B) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

C) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

D) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

37 / 69

37) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

B) Method of restraint

C) Skillset of the subject

D) Skillset of the door supervisor

38 / 69

38) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) May feel threatened by others

B) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

C) May lose interest in the physical intervention

D) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

39 / 69

39) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

B) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

C) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

D) Handling the individual independently.

40 / 69

40) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

B) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

C) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

D) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

41 / 69

41) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Within 72 hours of the incident

B) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

C) Whilst the witnesses are still present

D) As soon as practically possible

42 / 69

42) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Self-destructive behavior

B) Improvised weapons being carried

C) Law enforcement activity

D) Medical distress

43 / 69

43) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) An upgrade for all involved

B) A rise in venue insurance costs

C) An increased risk of harm

D) Increase in compensation

44 / 69

44) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

B) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

C) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

D) When the incident occurred

45 / 69

45) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Effective communication

B) Handcuffs

C) Martial arts

D) Unnecessary force

46 / 69

46) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

B) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

C) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

D) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

47 / 69

47) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Gather statements from all witnesses

B) Get rid of any evidence

C) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

D) Safeguard evidence

48 / 69

48) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

B) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

C) Ignore any signs of medical issues

D) Hold them down until they calm down

49 / 69

49) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

B) Place of the intervention

C) Gender identity of the person

D) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

50 / 69

50) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Unexpected or increase strength

B) Tranquility

C) Low blood pressure

D) Low temperature

51 / 69

51) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Advancement of the people concerned

B) Suffering endured by the people involved.

C) Loss of wages of those involved

D) Criminal prosecution of those involved

52 / 69

52) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Physical intervention is illegal

B) Physical intervention is used before anything else

C) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

D) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

53 / 69

53) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

B) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

C) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

D) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

54 / 69

54) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person has stolen property hidden on them

B) The person is drunk or on drugs

C) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

D) The persons age, size and weight

55 / 69

55) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) 3-point restraint

B) Prone Restraint

C) Head lock

D) Viable safety restraint

56 / 69

56) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Being cold and calmly to touch

B) Bleeding from the skin

C) Excessive Sweating

D) Having a regular pulse

57 / 69

57) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) The time

B) That the individual is conscious and breathing

C) What is the number of attendees

D) A taxi queue

58 / 69

58) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) The threat posted by the subject

B) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

C) The number of followers the subject has no social media

D) What outfit the subject is wearing

59 / 69

59) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could impair hearing

B) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

C) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

D) It could impair breathing

60 / 69

60) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Physical aggression.

B) Handcuffs

C) Verbal escalation

D) CCTV

61 / 69

61) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Positional asphyxia

B) Lowered blood pressure

C) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

D) Lowered body temperature

62 / 69

62) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Face down (prone)

B) Standing restrictive restraint

C) Face up (supine)

D) Standing non- restrictive restraint

63 / 69

63) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Showing bizarre behaviour

B) Having a low pulse rate

C) Agreeing to requests

D) Having a low breathing rate

64 / 69

64) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

B) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

C) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

D) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

65 / 69

65) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

B) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

C) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

D) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

66 / 69

66) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Call for help

B) Put the customer in the recovery position

C) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

D) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

67 / 69

67) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) An inability to breathe

B) A lower heart rate

C) A lower body temperature

D) Unrestricted breathing

68 / 69

68) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Guidelines for restraining another person.

B) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

C) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

D) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

69 / 69

69) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

B) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

C) Withdraw/De-escalate

D) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

Quick Links

Upcoming Training Courses

SIA Approved Security Training Course

Our Security Services

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Forms & Submissions

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