Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 2
Module 3
Module 4

Module 1A

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DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 99

1) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

B) Reduced access to basic health support

C) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

D) Increased exposure to potential violence

2 / 99

2) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

D) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

3 / 99

3) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

B) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

C) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

D) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

4 / 99

4) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that might cause occasional distractions

B) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

C) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

D) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

5 / 99

5) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

B) Providing legal representation to businesses

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Managing public relations for private companies

6 / 99

6) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To avoid supporting each individual customer

B) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

C) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

D) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

7 / 99

7) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

B) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

C) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

D) Call their superior before taking any actions

8 / 99

8) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

B) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

C) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

9 / 99

9) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A heart attack

C) A slip on a wet floor

D) A software update on a laptop

10 / 99

10) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Consistent injuries

B) Decrease in social interactions

C) Changes in behavior

D) Positive self-esteem

11 / 99

11) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Colleagues and management

B) Online gaming communities

C) Social media platforms

D) Entertainment websites and apps

12 / 99

12) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

B) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

C) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

13 / 99

13) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) To provide contact details for medical services

C) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

D) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

14 / 99

14) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It removes the need to contact emergency services

15 / 99

15) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To submit complaints against security personnel

B) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

C) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

D) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

16 / 99

16) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A colleague asking for help with a task

C) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

D) A manager requesting information

17 / 99

17) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To ensure property is not damaged

B) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

C) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

D) To gather information about the offense

18 / 99

18) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

B) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

C) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

19 / 99

19) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

B) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

20 / 99

20) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is likely

B) An attack is highly likely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is possible but unlikely

21 / 99

21) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) SIA standards and the company's established values

C) Personal preferences for handling situations

D) Instructions from colleagues

22 / 99

22) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

B) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

23 / 99

23) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

24 / 99

24) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

B) Activate the fire alarm

C) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

D) Immediately evacuate the building

25 / 99

25) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Informing someone of their legal rights

B) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

C) Depriving someone of their freedom

D) Guiding someone to a safe place

26 / 99

26) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

B) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

C) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

D) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

27 / 99

27) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Training employees in fire safety procedures

B) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

C) Providing first aid to injured staff

D) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

28 / 99

28) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

B) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

C) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

D) It never captures sensitive information

29 / 99

29) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

C) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

D) Licensing is only required for large security firms

30 / 99

30) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

B) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

C) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

D) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

31 / 99

31) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Reading a text message aloud

C) Making a phone call

D) Using hand gestures

32 / 99

32) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It leads to more competition among staff

B) It increases individual recognition

C) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

D) It means fewer security staff are needed

33 / 99

33) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

B) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

C) Local councils handle all the cases

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

34 / 99

34) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial support to security contractors

B) Regulating the security industry through licensing

C) Training security staff for private companies

D) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

35 / 99

35) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears disoriented

36 / 99

36) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

B) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Have no special powers of arrest

37 / 99

37) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

C) Recording shift instructions and break durations

D) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

38 / 99

38) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

B) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

C) May result in increased stress for the security operative

D) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

39 / 99

39) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

B) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

C) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

D) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

40 / 99

40) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

B) To improve employee productivity and performance

C) To limit employee movement around the premises

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

41 / 99

41) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

B) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

C) Taking part in group activities with friends

D) Directing security to a distressed individual

42 / 99

42) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Having a discussion with a family member

B) Taking pictures of a tourist group

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

43 / 99

43) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking calmly

B) Being confrontational

C) Speaking in an aggressive tone

D) Writing down instructions

44 / 99

44) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is almost certain to happen

B) When it is possible but not likely

C) When it is unlikely but still possible

D) When it is highly improbable

45 / 99

45) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

B) Planning out the route to the venue

C) Reviewing old criminal offenses

D) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

46 / 99

46) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

B) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

47 / 99

47) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

C) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

D) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

48 / 99

48) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with legal requirements

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To improve the reputation of the venue

49 / 99

49) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) State the total number of visitors

B) Recount only the parts that seem important

C) List the names of staff present

D) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

50 / 99

50) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) Littering

B) A noise complaint

C) An assault

D) Parking offenses

51 / 99

51) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Increasing entry fees to control access

B) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

C) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

D) Hosting private social events for the community

52 / 99

52) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

B) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

C) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

53 / 99

53) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

B) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

54 / 99

54) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Calmly walking away

B) Searching for a crowded area

C) Freezing and surrendering

D) Fight or flight

55 / 99

55) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Ignore their complaints directly

B) Deny there's any problem

C) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

D) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

56 / 99

56) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

B) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

C) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

D) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

57 / 99

57) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Vehicle immobilizer

B) Personal trainer

C) Customer support agent

D) Maintenance person

58 / 99

58) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Requesting assistance with directions

D) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

59 / 99

59) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To make the communication sound more complex

B) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

C) To add a formal tone to the conversation

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

60 / 99

60) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Developing negative coping mechanisms

B) Optimized focus on work projects

C) Enhanced team dynamics

D) Increased motivation to perform better

61 / 99

61) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Verbal warning from their employer

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Temporary suspension from their job

62 / 99

62) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Lift the load using the back muscles

B) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

C) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

63 / 99

63) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

C) Promote high standards within the industry

D) Guarantee low prices for security services

64 / 99

64) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Are an employee running late for a meeting

B) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

C) Might be conducting suspicious activities

D) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

65 / 99

65) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Engaging the person with professional customer service

B) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

C) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

66 / 99

66) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

B) Directly confront the individual

C) Contact the transport's customer service team

D) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

67 / 99

67) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Clear and concise communication

B) Removing them from the premises

C) Offering physical assistance

D) Providing immediate medical attention

68 / 99

68) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Adding more oxygen

B) Adding more heat

C) Removing the fuel

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

69 / 99

69) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

B) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

C) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

70 / 99

70) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

B) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

C) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

71 / 99

71) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside work

B) Potential promotions within the company

C) Dress code policies

D) Work-related personal projects

72 / 99

72) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Check the building for any missing people

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

C) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

D) Proceed to the assembly point

73 / 99

73) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

B) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

C) Photograph it and then throw it away

D) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

74 / 99

74) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

B) To review an incident but take no reflective action

C) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

D) To completely overlook the incident and move on

75 / 99

75) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When discussing personal matters outside of work

B) When scheduling breaks for security staff

C) When interacting with hostile customers

D) When arranging office furniture

76 / 99

76) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) An individual stealing sensitive information

B) Use of firearms

C) Release of dangerous substances

D) Hacking into a company's computer systems

77 / 99

77) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

C) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

D) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

78 / 99

78) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

C) Conducting highly visible patrols

D) Preventing interactions with the public

79 / 99

79) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

C) To avoid potential liability for future issues

D) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

80 / 99

80) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Limiting communication between security teams

B) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

C) Reducing opportunities for crimes

D) Promoting competition among local businesses

81 / 99

81) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

B) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

C) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

D) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

82 / 99

82) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A package left unattended

B) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

C) A colleague having an asthma attack

D) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

83 / 99

83) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

B) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

C) Giving the customer all of the information at once

D) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

84 / 99

84) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

85 / 99

85) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

B) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

C) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

D) To show authority and control over the situation

86 / 99

86) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Deleted after one month

B) Shared on social media for public awareness

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Accessed only by authorized personnel

87 / 99

87) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Sending a text message

C) Writing a polite email

D) Smiling or frowning

88 / 99

88) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

C) Notify the victim's family before taking action

D) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

89 / 99

89) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only general instructions without specific details

B) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

C) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

D) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

90 / 99

90) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Integrity

B) Dishonesty

C) Aggression

D) Indifference

91 / 99

91) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

B) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

D) To avoid contact with any key personnel

92 / 99

92) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of fire extinguishers

93 / 99

93) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual accountability

B) It enables individuals to work independently

C) It promotes communication and collaboration

D) It encourages competition among colleagues

94 / 99

94) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

95 / 99

95) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

96 / 99

96) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) An accident report

B) A search register

C) A visitor log

D) A duty sheet

97 / 99

97) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A facial expression showing confusion

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A security operative speaking to a customer

D) A notice posted on a door

98 / 99

98) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Common illnesses among employees

B) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

C) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

D) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

99 / 99

99) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

B) Alert the appropriate emergency services

C) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

D) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

Your score is

The average score is 61%

Module 1B

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Water, heat, and oxygen

B) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

C) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

D) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

2 / 92

2) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

B) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

C) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

D) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

3 / 92

3) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Effective practices

B) Financial bonuses

C) New opportunities for equipment

D) Good team-building activities

4 / 92

4) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class B

B) Class D

C) Class F

D) Class A

5 / 92

5) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A heart attack

B) A software update on a laptop

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A slip on a wet floor

6 / 92

6) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

B) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

C) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

D) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

7 / 92

7) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 400 meters.

B) Approximately 300 meters.

C) Approximately 100 meters.

D) Approximately 200 meters.

8 / 92

8) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) High-visibility patrols

9 / 92

9) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

B) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

C) Denying that there is any issue

D) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

10 / 92

10) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Burglary

B) Assault

C) Breach of contract

D) Murder

11 / 92

11) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

12 / 92

12) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) A security benefits scheme for employees

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) The approved contractor scheme

13 / 92

13) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It fosters communication and cooperation

B) It allows individuals to work in isolation

C) It increases individual responsibility

D) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

14 / 92

14) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

B) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

C) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

D) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

15 / 92

15) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Help vulnerable people evacuate

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Sound the alarm

D) Check the fire extinguishers

16 / 92

16) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

B) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

C) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

D) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

17 / 92

17) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To help them avoid discussing the incident

B) To completely disregard the incident and move on

C) To review an incident without taking reflective action

D) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

18 / 92

18) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) What they observed and their names

B) Any previous self-protection training they had

C) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

D) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

19 / 92

19) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

B) Contacting emergency services.

C) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

D) Investigating the cause before taking action.

20 / 92

20) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Have no special powers of arrest

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

D) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

21 / 92

21) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears disoriented

22 / 92

22) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Check the building for any missing people

B) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

D) Proceed to the assembly point

23 / 92

23) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

B) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

C) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

24 / 92

24) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

B) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

C) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

D) Cases of common colds among employees

25 / 92

25) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

B) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

26 / 92

26) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Sending a text message

D) Writing a polite email

27 / 92

27) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

D) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

28 / 92

28) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside of work

B) Potential promotions within the company

C) Dress code policies

D) Work-related personal projects

29 / 92

29) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

B) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

D) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

30 / 92

30) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Being confident and energetic

31 / 92

31) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

B) To reduce security visibility to the public

C) To avoid any staff interactions

D) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

32 / 92

32) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

D) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

33 / 92

33) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of hazardous materials

D) The location of first aid kits

34 / 92

34) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Access to company resources

B) Compensation and employee benefits

C) Participation in team-building activities

D) Allocation of lunch breaks

35 / 92

35) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

B) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

C) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

D) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

36 / 92

36) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

B) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

C) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

D) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

37 / 92

37) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Manned Guarding

B) Office receptionist

C) Delivery driver

D) Private investigator

38 / 92

38) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Limited access to basic health support.

B) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

C) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

D) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

39 / 92

39) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Photographed and then discarded

B) Disposed of and logged

C) Preserved and handed over to the police

D) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

40 / 92

40) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) A verbal warning from their employer

B) Temporary suspension from their job

C) Civil or criminal prosecution

D) Requirement to attend additional training

41 / 92

41) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It eliminates the need for other security measures

C) It removes the need to call emergency services

D) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

42 / 92

42) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

B) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

C) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

D) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

43 / 92

43) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

B) Increasing entry fees for access control

C) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

D) Organizing private gatherings within the community

44 / 92

44) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Providing legal representation to businesses

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

D) Managing public relations for private companies

45 / 92

45) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

B) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

C) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

D) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

46 / 92

46) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Water

B) Wet chemical

C) CO2 Gas

D) Foam

47 / 92

47) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

B) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

C) Assisting a lost individual

D) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

48 / 92

48) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Booking a taxi for the individual

B) Using local support organizations

C) Requesting assistance from the police

D) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

49 / 92

49) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A blue square with a cross

B) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

C) A red circle with a line through it

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

50 / 92

50) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

B) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

C) It reduces the need for training and oversight

D) It increases risks for both staff and the public

51 / 92

51) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

B) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

C) To inform the media about the arrest

D) To immediately leave the scene

52 / 92

52) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

B) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

C) Inform a manager and record the incident.

D) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

53 / 92

53) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

B) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

C) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

D) To question the suspect about the offense

54 / 92

54) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

B) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

C) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

D) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

55 / 92

55) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

B) Asking security staff for directions

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

56 / 92

56) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime occurs

B) Call the transport's customer service team

C) Confront the individual directly

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

57 / 92

57) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

B) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

C) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

58 / 92

58) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A power outage

B) A fire

C) A gas leak

D) A water leak

59 / 92

59) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child playing outdoors with friends

B) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

C) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

D) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

60 / 92

60) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

B) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

C) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

D) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

61 / 92

61) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

B) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Notify the victim's family before taking action

D) Separate the victim from the attacker

62 / 92

62) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

B) Try to administer first aid without training

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

63 / 92

63) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Offering aid to people in distress

B) Guiding security towards a distressed person

C) Engaging in group activities with friends

D) Closely observing and tracking individuals

64 / 92

64) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire hose

B) Sprinkler system

C) Fire blanket

D) Water

65 / 92

65) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To avoid attending required safety training.

B) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

C) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

D) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

66 / 92

66) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The release of hazardous substances.

B) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

C) The use of firearms.

D) Theft of sensitive information.

67 / 92

67) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving petrol or paint

B) A fire involving wood or rubber

C) A fire involving butane gas

D) A fire involving hot cooking oils

68 / 92

68) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

B) It cannot record any criminal activities

C) It can only be used outdoors

D) It can only be used indoors

69 / 92

69) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Speaking in a calm manner.

B) Using an aggressive tone.

C) Providing written instructions.

D) Being argumentative.

70 / 92

70) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

B) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

C) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

71 / 92

71) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Locking all entrances and exits

B) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

C) Ensuring security personnel leave first

D) Blocking access to all staircases

72 / 92

72) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

B) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

C) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

73 / 92

73) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

B) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

C) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

D) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

74 / 92

74) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of all staff present

B) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

C) State the total number of visitors

D) Recount only the seemingly important parts

75 / 92

75) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) The local community center

B) Samaritans

C) Trade unions

D) Citizens Advice Bureau

76 / 92

76) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Complete

B) Clear

C) Concise

D) Conclusion

77 / 92

77) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review their statement and the relevant case details

B) Wait until the last minute to arrive

C) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

78 / 92

78) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It prevents involvement from local authorities

B) It ensures no one will challenge actions

C) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

D) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

79 / 92

79) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Immediately search the individual

B) Escort the individual off the premises

C) Proceed to question the individual

D) Detain the individual

80 / 92

80) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for issues

B) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

C) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

D) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

81 / 92

81) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

B) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

C) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

D) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

82 / 92

82) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) The state brings charges against individuals

B) Private individuals initiate cases in court

C) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

D) Local councils manage all cases

83 / 92

83) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

C) A manager requesting information

D) A colleague seeking help with a task

84 / 92

84) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Accessible only by authorized personnel

B) Deleted after one month

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Shared on social media for awareness

85 / 92

85) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When managing office furniture layout

D) When planning breaks for security staff

86 / 92

86) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

87 / 92

87) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

B) Reducing communication between team members

C) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

D) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

88 / 92

88) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) SIA standards and the company's values

B) Personal preferences in handling situations

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Customer wishes and demands

89 / 92

89) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Preparing to use physical restraints

B) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

C) Improving team morale

D) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

90 / 92

90) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Highly improbable

B) Unlikely but conceivable

C) Nearly certain

D) Possible but unlikely

91 / 92

91) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor logs

B) Documenting found items

C) Recording shift instructions and break times

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

92 / 92

92) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Sound the alarm

D) Stop and search for the fire's source

Your score is

The average score is 66%

Module 1C

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 64

1) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the message

B) To add a formal tone to the conversation

C) To make the communication sound more complex

D) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

2 / 64

2) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

3 / 64

3) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) A security benefits scheme for employees

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) The approved contractor scheme

D) Offering discounts to security companies

4 / 64

4) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

B) promote high standards within the industry

C) limit the number of security providers within the industry

D) guarantee low prices for security services

5 / 64

5) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

A) A white circle with a black cross

B) A red circle with a line through it

C) A blue square with a cross

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

6 / 64

6) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

A) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

B) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

C) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

D) Follow the company's procedures and policies

7 / 64

7) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

A) Establishing rapport whilst acknowledging the customer

B) Minimising interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

C) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

D) Giving the customer all of the information at once

8 / 64

8) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Forcefully search the individual without explaining the reason

9 / 64

9) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

A) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

B) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

C) To avoid complaints from individuals

D) To ensure everyone's safety as vulnerability is not always visible

10 / 64

10) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

B) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

C) It is not useful for identifying and monitoring suspicious individuals

D) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

11 / 64

11) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

A) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow

B) Inform colleagues but stop taking actions

C) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

D) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

12 / 64

12) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) can put the security operative's own safety at risk

C) may result in increased stress for the security operative

D) prevent the police from responding to other incidents

13 / 64

13) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Having a discussion with a family member

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking pictures of a tourist group

14 / 64

14) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Help vulnerable people evacuate

D) Check the fire extinguishers

15 / 64

15) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

A) Clearing people from inside a building onto the street

B) Moving people from a building so that it can be locked

C) Moving people into a secure area in a building

D) Clearing people from a secure room to a more accessible area

16 / 64

16) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts so it is easy to remember

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

17 / 64

17) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

A) recognise areas for improvement

B) boost team morale

C) better understand how to escalate situations

D) prepare themselves to use physical restraints

18 / 64

18) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) An ongoing issue with no immediate impact on safety

B) A sudden and unexpected event that often needs quick action

C) A planned event that has a low risk of disrupting safety

D) A situation that requires long-term planning to solve

19 / 64

19) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) parking offences

B) littering

C) an assault

D) a police complaint

20 / 64

20) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

A) It creates more risk for both staff and the public

B) It increases the chance of conflicts between team members

C) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

D) It decreases the need for training and supervision

21 / 64

21) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

B) Only document it if they require medical treatment

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Report the injury to their employer

22 / 64

22) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To gather information about the offence

B) To prevent the person causing harm to themselves or others

C) To stop the person fleeing before the police arrive

D) To ensure property is not damaged

23 / 64

23) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

B) Limiting communication between security teams

C) Promoting competition among local businesses

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

24 / 64

24) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

A) Decrease in social interactions

B) Changes in behaviour

C) Consistent injuries

D) Positive self-esteem

25 / 64

25) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To comply with the law

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To improve the reputation of the venue

26 / 64

26) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

B) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

C) People freezing in place due to shock

D) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

27 / 64

27) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Planning out the route to the venue

B) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

C) Reviewing old criminal offences

D) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

28 / 64

28) What does the term arrest generally mean?

A) To take away someone's liberty

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To escort someone to safety

D) To question someone about a crime

29 / 64

29) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Citizens Advice Bureau

B) Trade unions

C) The local community centre

D) Samaritans

30 / 64

30) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

A) Personal trainer

B) Maintenance person

C) Customer support agent

D) Vehicle immobiliser

31 / 64

31) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

B) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

C) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

D) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

32 / 64

32) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is extremely unlikely

B) An attack is highly likely

C) An attack is likely

D) An attack is possible but unlikely

33 / 64

33) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Training employees in fire safety procedures

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

D) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

34 / 64

34) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

A) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

B) To show authority and control over the situation

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

35 / 64

35) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

A) 400 metres

B) 300 metres

C) 200 metres

D) 100 metres

36 / 64

36) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To limit employee movement around the premises

B) To understand who may be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To estimate costs for safety equipment

D) To improve employee productivity and performance

37 / 64

37) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

B) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

C) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

D) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

38 / 64

38) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

D) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

39 / 64

39) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Only keep recordings taken from private spaces

B) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

C) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorised staff

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

40 / 64

40) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

A) Adding more oxygen

B) Removing the fuel

C) Adding more heat

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

41 / 64

41) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To change the security measures based on personal judgement

B) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in that situation

C) To avoid contact with any key personnel

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

42 / 64

42) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid waste

D) Use equipment until it fails as repairs are costly and unnecessary

43 / 64

43) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

A) Assault

B) Burglary

C) Murder

D) Breach of contract

44 / 64

44) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Wet chemical

B) CO2 Gas

C) Water

D) Foam

45 / 64

45) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

A) Engaging the person with professional customer service

B) Allowing the behaviour if it seems harmless

C) Reporting the behaviour using the ACT online system

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

46 / 64

46) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Optimised focus on work projects

B) Increased motivation to perform better

C) Developing negative coping mechanisms

D) Enhanced team dynamics

47 / 64

47) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

A) Contacting the local authorities and appropriate management

B) Understanding whether the item shows suspicious characteristics

C) Moving everyone away from the local area and cordoning it off

D) Stopping others moving into the area until it has been deemed safe

48 / 64

48) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

A) Cutting an individual to an employee

B) Any disease related to the workplace

C) Only serious contagious diseases

D) Any disease not related to the workplace

49 / 64

49) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

A) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for further investigation

B) Record the details and wait for the next scheduled report

C) Take videos and images to post on an anti-terrorist public forum

D) Confront the individuals involved to gather more information

50 / 64

50) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Try to administer first aid without training

B) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

51 / 64

51) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

A) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation and stay in the background

B) Act quickly, be authoritative and encourage calmness in others

C) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

D) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

52 / 64

52) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Helping a lost individual back to their friends

C) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

D) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

53 / 64

53) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A security operative speaking to a customer

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A facial expression showing confusion

54 / 64

54) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) are an employee running late for a meeting

B) might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

C) might be conducting suspicious activities

D) are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

55 / 64

55) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

A) avoid any staff interactions

B) obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

C) intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

D) reduce security visibility to the public

56 / 64

56) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A visitor log

B) A duty sheet

C) An accident report

D) A search register

57 / 64

57) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A colleague having an asthma attack

B) Fire spreading from a neighbouring building

C) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

D) A package left unattended

58 / 64

58) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

A) Indifference

B) Aggression

C) Integrity

D) Dishonesty

59 / 64

59) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child playing in a field with friends

B) A child carrying out appropriate age-related activities

C) A child arriving and leaving locations with different adults

D) A child being closely supervised by parents

60 / 64

60) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

A) Using local support organisations

B) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

C) Requesting assistance from the police

D) Booking a taxi for the individual

61 / 64

61) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

A) Pay and benefits

B) Use of company resources

C) Team-building activities

D) Lunch breaks

62 / 64

62) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

A) Removal from the premises

B) Clear communication

C) Medical attention

D) Physical assistance

63 / 64

63) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Reading a text message aloud

C) Using hand gestures

D) Making a phone call

64 / 64

64) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 70

1) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

A) Ejection of a customer

B) Ejection of a customer

C) Drunk people outside the venue

D) An incident occurring inside the venue

2 / 70

2) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

A) Class D

B) Class A

C) Class C

D) Class B

3 / 70

3) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

A) Decrease the likelihood of conflict

B) Increase customer numbers

C) Decrease customer numbers

D) Increase the likelihood of conflict

4 / 70

4) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

A) Could become a victim of a crime

B) Unable to contact a relative who might give a ride.

C) Will not have the budget for a taxi ride

D) Might have to wait for their friends for an extended period of time.

5 / 70

5) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

A) Escorting customers home

B) Ensuring admission policy is followed

C) The revenue of the business you work for

D) Enforcing parking fines

6 / 70

6) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

A) 20-year prison sentence

B) 8-year prison sentence and a fine

C) 12-year prison sentence and fine

D) 14-year prison sentence and a fine

7 / 70

7) After an arrest, you are required to:

A) Ensure the individual's safety; assist police with a statement if required;attend court if required

B) Ensure all seized property is given to the police; assist police with a statement; record details in pocket book

C) Hand individual to police explaining reason for arrest; ensure the individual's safety; report all details to a manager as soon as possible

D) Ensure own safety; ensure the individual's safety; record details in pocket note book

8 / 70

8) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

A) Random individuals are searched

B) All individuals is searched

C) Specific individuals are searched

D) The manager let door supervisors know whom to search

9 / 70

9) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

A) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

B) How many radios are available for use at the premises

C) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

D) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

10 / 70

10) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

A) Set new maximum occupancy limits

B) Confiscate musical equipment

C) Ban the sale of certain brands of alcohol

D) Power of closure

11 / 70

11) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

A) Improve customers’ safety

B) minimize the bar queue time

C) promote customer to interact with each other

D) Show what a great venue you have

12 / 70

12) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

A) Disregard them until they engage in illegal behavior.

B) Advise the local police in case the behaviour escalates

C) Document of those responsible in your notebook

D) Monitor them and use a radio to advise colleagues

13 / 70

13) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

A) An offensive weapon

B) A harmful weapon

C) A personal weapon

D) A dangerous weapon

14 / 70

14) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

A) An argument between a couple inside the venue

B) A quarrel between a couple inside the venue

C) A Serious assault outside the venue

D) An alleged assault of a person inside the venue

15 / 70

15) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

A) A searchlight

B) A plastic detector

C) A search wand

D) An archway metal detector (AMD)

16 / 70

16) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

A) Destroy it yourself

B) Call the emergency services

C) Inform your supervisor

D) Take a photo and send it to the head door supervisor

17 / 70

17) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

A) A customer

B) A member of staff

C) A door supervisor

D) The manager

18 / 70

18) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

A) Common assault

B) Grievous bodily harm

C) Rape

D) Trespass

19 / 70

19) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

A) Documentary

B) Circumstantial

C) Hearsay

D) Forensic

20 / 70

20) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

A) In the broken glass bin

B) Clinical Waste

C) In the regular trash container

D) In the street refuse bin

21 / 70

21) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

A) Obtain person's permission

B) Use appropriate personal protective equipment, undertake same sex search;

C) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; use maximum force

D) Follow search policy; search in private and alone; obtain person's permission

22 / 70

22) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

A) Face shield

B) Gloves

C) Safety goggles

D) Ear defenders

23 / 70

23) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

A) When the venue has a large queue

B) A serious incident involving customers or staff has taken place or is taking place

C) You had to eject a customer using minimum and reasonable force

D) You discover one of the regular customers forgot his belongings on the premises

24 / 70

24) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

A) An archway metal detector (AMD)

B) A plastic detector

C) A searchlight

D) A search wand

25 / 70

25) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

A) Follow the local seize and secure policy

B) Get rid of the drugs by flushing them down the toilet

C) Screen all customers exiting the toilets for potential security threats

D) Make all venues aware of the incident

26 / 70

26) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

A) Heroin

B) Tranquilisers

C) Amphetamines

D) Cannabis

27 / 70

27) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

A) Inform your manager

B) Carry search alone in a private area

C) Record search details in your incident book

D) Carry search in view of CCTV cameras

28 / 70

28) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

A) By local MPs

B) Local Radio

C) National Threat Level information

D) Social Media outlets

29 / 70

29) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

A) Contact the licensing officer

B) Contact the emergency service

C) Record the incident using a mobile phone

D) Contact the venue’s head office

30 / 70

30) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

A) Get permission from the customer

B) Inspect if they have gloves and a torch

C) Inform management that a search is in progress

D) Describe the admissions policy to the customer

31 / 70

31) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

A) Visitor log

B) Incident questionnaire

C) Incident report

D) Incident log

32 / 70

32) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

A) Chess

B) Darts

C) Roulette

D) Pool

33 / 70

33) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

A) The SIA will do spot checks to ensure searches are being conducted

B) The warrant makes sure that the search is fair and legal

C) Door supervisor companies can charge higher prices

D) Licensing officers prefer to have searches documented

34 / 70

34) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

A) Keeping a record of how many drinks are sold

B) A count of each customer on entry and totalling up later

C) Walking up and down queues and making a rough count

D) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

35 / 70

35) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

A) Wrap toilet paper around and flush down the toilet

B) Call an ambulance

C) Wear PPE whilst handling and dispose at medical waste disposal site

D) Dispose of at the nearest waste bin

36 / 70

36) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

A) Understanding customers

B) Being monitored by CCTV

C) Approachable customers

D) Violent behaviour

37 / 70

37) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

A) Drug dealing

B) Gaming or gambling with the correct license

C) Gaming or gambling without a licence

D) Solicitation

38 / 70

38) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

A) Notify the manager

B) Search anyway

C) Reject their entry

D) Ring to the police

39 / 70

39) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

A) A female taking selfies with a male

B) A male offering to buy drinks for a female

C) A heavily drunk or intoxicated female leaving with a male

D) A group of females chatting with a group of males

40 / 70

40) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

A) The day-to-day operation of the premises

B) Ensuring they give a full handover to the head door supervisor before leaving for the evening

C) The authorisation of door supervisors’ overtime

D) Ensuring they give a full handover to all door supervisors before leaving for the evening

41 / 70

41) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

A) It may help to reduce potential conflict

B) They may not like the drinks served inside

C) It helps customers to plan their evening

D) It allows customers to be aware of the latest promotions and offers

42 / 70

42) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

A) Inform the police of each event

B) Photograph customers on entry

C) Ban bags at the venue

D) Search individuals on entry

43 / 70

43) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

A) Only in block capital letters

B) After consulting with supervisors

C) Immediately after an incident or as soon as it is reasonably practical

D) Whilst witnessing an incident

44 / 70

44) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

A) If they can verify their age and stay in the children's area.

B) If it is purchased by an adult in the bar area

C) If it is purchased by an adult with a full table meal

D) If they are in the lounge area with an adult guardian

45 / 70

45) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

A) Mitigate the threat and contact the police.

B) Photograph, log and return the item before allowing them entry into the venue

C) Seize the item and deny them to enter

D) Secure the item and return it when they exit the venue

46 / 70

46) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

A) Keep customers entertained while waiting

B) Work with their colleagues to keep customers moving during entry

C) Work in isolation and focus only on each customer as they enter

D) Keep delays to yourself to avoid customer grievances

47 / 70

47) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

A) Grand Bodily Harm

B) Actual Bodily Harm

C) Grievous Bodily Harm

D) Common Assault

48 / 70

48) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

A) Dispose the drugs and ask the person to leave the premises

B) Seize and secure drugs; always arrest;inform a manager and the police

C) Seize and secure the drugs; follow local policy regarding making an arrest; inform a manager and record the incident

D) Let them do what they are doing. Class B drugs are not illegal

49 / 70

49) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They help to record all customers’ faces

B) They identify those who have been banned

C) They can be used by management for marketing

D) They help to deter anti-social behaviour

50 / 70

50) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

A) Dilated pupils

B) Unpredictable behavior

C) Powder traces under the nose

D) Falling sleep

51 / 70

51) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

A) Criminal damage

B) Trespass

C) Unlawful entry

D) Offensive behavior

52 / 70

52) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

A) Cultural/Religious beliefs of the individual

B) The race of the individual

C) The group of friends around an individual

D) Facial hair

53 / 70

53) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

A) Dispose of it in a sharp's container

B) Flush it down the toilet

C) Seal it in a plastic bag

D) Dispose in the general waste bin

54 / 70

54) Door supervisors are responsible for:

A) Writing the admission policy

B) Advertising venue theme nights

C) Ensuring the premises remains full

D) Promoting house rules

55 / 70

55) The types of searches are:

A) General, Handpicked, Race related

B) General, Random, Specific

C) Thorough, X-Ray, General

D) National, Private, Public

56 / 70

56) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

A) Theft

B) Loot

C) Sabotage

D) Burglary

57 / 70

57) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

A) They assist in preventing anti-social behaviour

B) They help capturing the facial images of all customers’

C) They identify those who have been banned.

D) They can be used by management for marketing

58 / 70

58) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

A) Withhold information from customers

B) Ensure that pedestrian barriers are properly positioned

C) Make way for VIPs

D) Investigate each customer in detail.

59 / 70

59) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

A) Direct

B) Incidental

C) Hearsay

D) Forensic

60 / 70

60) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

A) Rape, Murder and Tax fraud

B) Fly tipping, trespass and burglary

C) Trespass, robbery and theft

D) Assault, Theft, and Drug

61 / 70

61) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

A) Allow security staff to leave to save the venue money

B) Help prevent complaints from local residents

C) Lead to a quick count of how many customers have been inside

D) Allow the premises to be cleaned quickly

62 / 70

62) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

A) Use of toilets

B) Selling alcohol to anyone who is drunk

C) Loud music

D) Consumption of food

63 / 70

63) When a door supervisor notices a customer with dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

A) Being intoxicated

B) Drug dealing

C) Being aware

D) Drug use

64 / 70

64) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

A) When a problem is reported by someone

B) At all times to ensure safe queuing

C) When barriers are moved by customers

D) When the numbers exceed 100

65 / 70

65) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

A) Walking up and down queues and making a quick estimate of the number of people

B) Manually counting the number of access points and adding up the totals later.

C) Using a clicker counting device and monitoring totals

D) Monitoring drink sales performance

66 / 70

66) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

A) Ask the venue’s manager

B) explore on the internet

C) inqure a member of the bar staff

D) Read the venue’s assignment instructions

67 / 70

67) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

A) Public safety regulation

B) Venue security measures

C) Licensing federation

D) Licensing objectives

68 / 70

68) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

A) Arrange for all CCTV cameras to monitor the area

B) Bag up and label all the evidence available at the scene

C) Restrict access to the immediate area of the scene

D) Arrange for personal protective equipment (PPE) to be taken to the scene

69 / 70

69) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

A) Drug use

B) Nervousness

C) Exposure to carbon monoxide

D) Fear

70 / 70

70) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

A) Ensuring the designated premises person is present at all times

B) How many radios are available for use at the premises

C) How many security and bar staff are available at the venue

D) How many people are in the queue waiting to enter

Your score is

The average score is 71%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You might be fired from your workplace

B) For the safety of yourself and others

C) You cannot guarantee victory

D) The customer might bring his friends

2 / 50

2) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

B) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

C) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

D) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

3 / 50

3) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Loses face

B) Made to feel welcome

C) Shocked

D) Treated like a valued guest

4 / 50

4) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Explaining company procedures to the happy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

D) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

5 / 50

5) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their hearing tunes into the threat

B) Their heartbeat decelerates

C) Their thought processes become more logical

D) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

6 / 50

6) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Нарру

B) Comfortable

C) Appreciated

D) Insulted

7 / 50

7) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Various clothes

B) Diverse hair colour

C) Different cultures

D) Different eye colour

8 / 50

8) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

B) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

C) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

D) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

9 / 50

9) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) only paying partial attention to the other person

B) Dodging eye contact

C) gesturing with open palms

D) Facing the other person directly

10 / 50

10) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Concise communication

B) Poor communication

C) Effective communication

D) Persuasive communication

11 / 50

11) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and psychological

B) Rational and social

C) Irrational and emotional

D) Rational and emotional

12 / 50

12) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to force their way past the employee

B) Tell the manager

C) Hold until the employee moves

D) Try to talk their way out of the situation

13 / 50

13) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Being threatening

B) Being assertive

C) Displaying empathy to show you understand the other person

D) Explaining the potential outcomes if the behaviour continues

14 / 50

14) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

B) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

C) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

D) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

15 / 50

15) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fighting back

B) Ignoring the legal consequences

C) Fear of retaliation

D) Being rude

16 / 50

16) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

B) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

C) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

D) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

17 / 50

17) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

B) 'I need that bag to make search it.'

C) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search'

D) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

18 / 50

18) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) May get disciplined

B) Will still do a nice job

C) might avoid injury

D) Will ignore being disciplined

19 / 50

19) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) A spin-off

B) Compromised

C) A win-win

D) Empathic

20 / 50

20) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

B) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

C) The conflict will remain unresolved

D) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

21 / 50

21) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Loss of your employment

B) An argument

C) The customer departing

D) Have your driver's license suspended

22 / 50

22) Empathy means being able to:

A) Understand another person’s point of view

B) Share someone else's opinion

C) Encourage another person’s perception

D) Ignore someone else's opinion

23 / 50

23) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak quickly

B) Speak loudly

C) Speak calmly

D) Speak aggressively

24 / 50

24) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Approachable

B) Mandatory

C) Reasonable

D) Less

25 / 50

25) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Bully at them and tell jokes

B) Stand further away from the employee

C) Begin to use abusive personal language

D) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

26 / 50

26) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

B) Take one to another room to separate them

C) Force to stop an argument

D) Threaten to call the police

27 / 50

27) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Not listening to the customer

B) Being assertive towards the customer

C) Speaking to the customer seriously

D) Advising to the customer

28 / 50

28) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Not providing relevant information

B) Being kept waiting

C) Being fearful of the consequences

D) Being disregarded

29 / 50

29) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Minimal

B) Mandatory

C) Suitable

D) Reasonable

30 / 50

30) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

B) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

C) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

D) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

31 / 50

31) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It minimizes the chances of a risk

B) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

C) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

D) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

32 / 50

32) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Frustration

B) Awareness

C) Assertiveness

D) Empathy

33 / 50

33) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Victim Support

B) Samaritans

C) Crime Stoppers

D) Child Line

34 / 50

34) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Patronised

C) Capable

D) Assertive

35 / 50

35) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) They complain to management

B) Any direction given is followed

C) The outcome is successful

D) Your opinion is heard

36 / 50

36) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

B) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

C) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

37 / 50

37) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Patience

B) Frustration

C) Assertiveness

D) Violence

38 / 50

38) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Victim Support Scheme

B) The lead security operative

C) The manager

D) The Local Council

39 / 50

39) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

B) Develop a rapport with the customer

C) Note down the instructions

D) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

40 / 50

40) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

B) Kick the customer out without warning

C) Exert all available force

D) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

41 / 50

41) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will avoid being disciplined

B) Can ignore injury

C) Will continue to perform well

D) May get disciplined

42 / 50

42) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Psychological barrier

B) Social barrier

C) Political barrier

D) Physical barrier

43 / 50

43) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To pick up trends

B) To get a promotion

C) Make a positive impression on your manager

D) To get increase in salary

44 / 50

44) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) It empowers the customer to take charge

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

45 / 50

45) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

B) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

C) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

D) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

46 / 50

46) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Showing empathy towards the customer

B) By criticising the actions of the customer

C) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

D) Being bossy towards the customer

47 / 50

47) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Angry

C) Motivated

D) Empowered

48 / 50

48) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

B) Having strong personal values

C) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

D) Being unsure of what action is taken

49 / 50

49) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

B) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

C) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

50 / 50

50) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Motivation

B) Humiliation

C) Recognition

D) Stimulus

Your score is

The average score is 70%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 69

1) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

A) If the physical intervention is on CCTV

B) The numbers of staff involved in the physical intervention

C) Whether the door supervisor is first-aid trained

D) When the incident occurred

2 / 69

2) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

A) Put weight on the customers back while they are on the ground

B) De-escalate the situation and use of force as quickly as is possible

C) Ignore any signs of medical issues

D) Hold them down until they calm down

3 / 69

3) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

A) Restricting the subject using the 3 point restraint

B) Holding the subject with their hands behind their back

C) Holding someone in the prone restraint for an extended amount of time

D) Being too physical with someone for longer than necessary

4 / 69

4) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

A) Ensure that the restrained individual's shoes are removed

B) Respect the dignity of the individual being restrained

C) Respect the personal space of the individual being restrained

D) Ensure that the restrained person receives timely and appropriate first aid if needed

5 / 69

5) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

A) Take statements from all witnesses to the restraint

B) Brief the emergency services about the medical history of the person being restrained

C) Brief the emergency services about the nature and duration of the restraint

D) Take fingerprints of all involved in the restrain

6 / 69

6) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

A) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

B) Reinforcing the staff involvement in the restraint

C) Placing the customer's arms behind their back

D) Continuing with the restrain until the customer is exhausted

7 / 69

7) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

A) The team can share knowledge and experience as well as learn from previous occurences to help reduce the same events reoccuring again

B) Door staff can offload any bad memories so they don't suffer nightmares

C) The whole team can make sure they understand the violent incident in case the police ask for witness statements

D) Door staff should be debriefed so they can share their side of the story to prevent them from being guilty

8 / 69

8) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

A) Door supervisor's job may not be tied to one specific location

B) Door supervisor may become physically exhausted

C) Customer may become easier to deal with

D) Customer may become impatient

9 / 69

9) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

A) Exposed to further injury or harm

B) Forced to leave the venue

C) Taken into custody

D) Prohibited from entering the venue

10 / 69

10) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

A) Use of handcuffs and ties

B) Use of equipment such as cctv and radios to summon help

C) Tactics to keep yourself safe

D) Techniques which isolate the individual

11 / 69

11) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

A) Evaluate the weapons available when looking at a situation to determine how to cause the most damage

B) Continuously monitor the levels of risk faced by all parties involved and adapt accordingly

C) Assess the risks involved in using a physical restraint to all parties when deciding if physical restraint is appropriate

D) Withdraw/De-escalate

12 / 69

12) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

A) Promotion to head door supervisor

B) Civil litigation from the injured party

C) Paying less

D) Enhanced social media presence

13 / 69

13) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

A) Effective communication

B) Handcuffs

C) Unnecessary force

D) Martial arts

14 / 69

14) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

A) Suffering endured by the people involved.

B) Advancement of the people concerned

C) Criminal prosecution of those involved

D) Loss of wages of those involved

15 / 69

15) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

A) Moving a customer onto their side as soon as is possible after a restraint on the ground

B) Any restraint that impairs breathing

C) Not using physical restraints

D) Calmly talking to customers

16 / 69

16) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

A) Showing bizarre behaviour

B) Having a low breathing rate

C) Agreeing to requests

D) Having a low pulse rate

17 / 69

17) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

A) Self-destructive behavior

B) Improvised weapons being carried

C) Medical distress

D) Law enforcement activity

18 / 69

18) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

A) Viable safety restraint

B) Prone Restraint

C) Head lock

D) 3-point restraint

19 / 69

19) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

A) Skillset of the door supervisor

B) What colour shoes the subject is wearing

C) Skillset of the subject

D) Method of restraint

20 / 69

20) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

A) Release the hold and check the customers airway breathing and circulation

B) Ask the customer for his name to ensure he is still aware

C) Call for help

D) Put the customer in the recovery position

21 / 69

21) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

A) Strength, and safety

B) The force was necessary and the force was proportionate in the circumstances

C) If your safety was at risk, and you were capable of being forceful without injuring yourself

D) Another colleague was there to assess the force, and it was delivered with respect

22 / 69

22) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

A) Avoiding high – risk positions including ground restraints

B) Handling the individual independently.

C) Applying pressure to the neck or chest, which can make it difficult to breathe

D) Being mindful of your own safety and the safety of others

23 / 69

23) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

A) Ignore the level of force used during a restrain

B) Monitor the restraint using CCTV

C) Monitor the health and safety of the individual undergoing restraint

D) Encourage an increase in the level of force used during a restraint

24 / 69

24) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

A) Respectable

B) Reasonable

C) Rational

D) As much force as you are trained in - as long as you aren't in danger of getting hurt

25 / 69

25) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

A) An increased risk of harm

B) Increase in compensation

C) An upgrade for all involved

D) A rise in venue insurance costs

26 / 69

26) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

A) Perform a hazard assessment at the beginning of the evening

B) Formulate a plan for physically restraining the individual later in the day

C) Determine who is accountable for the incident

D) Assess the situation and evaluate options to reduce the risk of harm

27 / 69

27) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

A) Unrestricted breathing

B) A lower heart rate

C) An inability to breathe

D) A lower body temperature

28 / 69

28) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

A) Within 24 hours of notifying the relevant authorities

B) As soon as practically possible

C) Within 72 hours of the incident

D) Whilst the witnesses are still present

29 / 69

29) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

A) Tranquility

B) Low temperature

C) Low blood pressure

D) Unexpected or increase strength

30 / 69

30) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

A) Assess the threat and risks to individuals involved in the restraint

B) Identify hazards at the end of the shift

C) Guidelines for restraining another person.

D) Identify the most qualified person to lead the restraint.

31 / 69

31) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

A) Staff should get a pay rise

B) Staff should get a warning

C) Staff should be given support

D) Staff should return to work immediately

32 / 69

32) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

A) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movements

B) Physical intervention is used before anything else

C) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

D) Physical intervention is illegal

33 / 69

33) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

A) Provide additional training and guidance for all security staff

B) Review their safety measures and request an independent SIA review

C) Encourage secondary control alternatives

D) Only hire door supervisors with the SIA advance physical intervention qualification

34 / 69

34) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

A) Increase force at the earliest opportunity

B) Increase the number of staff involved in the restraint

C) Hold the person down on the ground for longer.

D) De-escalate force at the earliest opportunity

35 / 69

35) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

A) Safeguard evidence

B) Gather statements from all witnesses

C) Get rid of any evidence

D) Gather fingerprints from all witnesses

36 / 69

36) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) Legislation may change

B) A door supervisor cannot restrain if they do not attend regular training

C) All employers ask for it

D) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

37 / 69

37) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

A) Positional asphyxia

B) Low body temperature

C) Low blood pressure

D) Calmness

38 / 69

38) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

A) Restricting the use of physical force until intervention is needed

B) Restricting the use of physical force unless absolutely necessary

C) Restricting the use of physical force unless necessary to protect people's safety

D) The use of force to restrict the movement of someone else

39 / 69

39) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

A) Tactics to keep yourself safe

B) Use of handcuffs or ties

C) Conflict management skills

D) Techniques which isolate the individual

40 / 69

40) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

A) An increase in venue insurance costs

B) A pay increase

C) An increased risk of harm

D) A promotion for all involved

41 / 69

41) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

A) The person has a weapon and is threatening to use it

B) The person has stolen property hidden on them

C) The person is drunk or on drugs

D) The persons age, size and weight

42 / 69

42) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

A) Writing it down will be a good way to hide what happened

B) It may assist in any legal matters that could arise later

C) Staff should not write anything down

D) Writing it down helps staff forget about the incident

43 / 69

43) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

A) Having a regular pulse

B) Bleeding from the skin

C) Being cold and calmly to touch

D) Excessive Sweating

44 / 69

44) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

A) Handcuffs

B) Physical aggression.

C) Verbal escalation

D) CCTV

45 / 69

45) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

A) The use of a weapon

B) Conflict management

C) Control and restraint

D) The use of pepper spray

46 / 69

46) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

A) Ensure the reports of all involved are identical

B) Ensure they provide a full report accounting for their individual actions during the restraint

C) Decide who requires further training in restraint

D) Decide who they will work with on the next shift

47 / 69

47) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

A) May lose interest in the physical intervention

B) Becomes less likely to be assaulted by others

C) Becomes more vulnerable to assault from others

D) May feel threatened by others

48 / 69

48) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

A) Bringing in more staff to assist with the restraint

B) Repositioning the restrained customer as quickly as possible

C) Maintaining restraint until the customer is calmed down

D) Securing the customer's arms behind their back

49 / 69

49) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

A) Gender identity of the person

B) De-escalation at the earliest opportunity

C) The manpower of door supervisors on duty

D) Place of the intervention

50 / 69

50) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

A) How many people have knowledge of the physical intervention

B) The threat posted by the subject

C) The number of followers the subject has no social media

D) What outfit the subject is wearing

51 / 69

51) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

A) The time

B) That the individual is conscious and breathing

C) A taxi queue

D) What is the number of attendees

52 / 69

52) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

A) A physical intervention can only be used by door supervisors whereas a defensive physical skill cannot

B) A defensive physical skill cannot be used by door supervisors whereas a physical intervention can

C) A defensive physical skills is to protect yourself whereas a physical intervention is not

D) A physical intervention always uses positive communication whereas a defensive physical skill does not

53 / 69

53) What does the word Static mean?

A) In a defensive state

B) In a state ready to be physical

C) Unchanging

D) In the right state

54 / 69

54) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

A) Use of self-defense weapon

B) Violence

C) Conflict management

D) Control and restraint

55 / 69

55) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

A) Only the manager of the establishment is liable for what happens after someone is restrained.

B) All staff are responsible for the individual after the restraint

C) All head door supervisors are responsible after a restraint

D) Only the manager manager is the only person who can be held accountable for the well-being of the individual after being restrained.

56 / 69

56) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

A) Medical distress

B) Self-inflicted injuries

C) Law enforcement presence

D) Equipped with weapons

57 / 69

57) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

A) Lowered body temperature

B) Positional paralysis leading to bruising of the customer

C) Lowered blood pressure

D) Positional asphyxia

58 / 69

58) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

A) Identifying hazards and risks before the venue opens

B) One person will be responsible for coordinating all aspects of the initiativ

C) The continuous monitoring of changes in risks to all parties

D) Promote the least experienced person to the top position.

59 / 69

59) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

A) Weapons or drugs can be concealed more easily

B) You should always maintain an authoritative position

C) Broken glass or other unseen sharps on the floor

D) You are more vulnerable on the floor

60 / 69

60) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

A) Chance of being uploaded to social media

B) Door supervisor's skill in handling challenging customers

C) Door supervisor's expertise to search customers

D) Risk of injury to the door supervisor or customer

61 / 69

61) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

A) Physical intervention is used before anything else

B) Defensive skills must be carried out in a team

C) Defensive skills are not used to restrict a person’s movement

D) Physical intervention is illegal

62 / 69

62) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

A) Mitigating against all risks using dynamism and interference

B) Constantly monitoring and assessing the level of risk

C) Always keeping on the move so you are ready to intervene

D) Being dynamic in your responses to danger

63 / 69

63) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

A) All employers ask for references

B) Door supervisors must attend regular training in order to be qualified to restrain individuals

C) Legislation may change

D) A door supervisor cannot work without annual updates

64 / 69

64) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

A) Make more money at the venue

B) Is advertised

C) Could lose their license

D) Promotes safety

65 / 69

65) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

A) Mental health issues

B) Hypohydration

C) Hypothermia

D) Acute behavioural disturbance (ABD)

66 / 69

66) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

A) Face down (prone)

B) Face up (supine)

C) Standing non- restrictive restraint

D) Standing restrictive restraint

67 / 69

67) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

A) The door supervisor should remain quiet during the intervention

B) The door supervisor should use mechanical restrains

C) The door supervisors should call the police and not intervene

D) The door supervisor should use communication skills

68 / 69

68) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

A) It could impair hearing

B) It could provoke the person and make them more likely to be violent

C) It could escalate the risk of verbal abuse

D) It could impair breathing

69 / 69

69) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

A) Door supervisors are not qualified to use defensive skills.

B) Defensive skills are responsive

C) Door supervisors should avoid using defensive skills

D) A defensive skill is not a solo activity.

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1A

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Module 1A

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Module 1C

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

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