Security Officer Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 1D
Module 2
Module 3

Module 1A

/100

Module 1A - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1A - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) What does the term "arrest" mean?

A) To question someone about a crime

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To take away someone's freedom

D) To escort someone to safety

2 / 100

2) From the following, the best method of deterring anti – social behaviour is to carry out:

A) Lockdown patrols

B) High-profile patrols

C) Covert patrols

D) Patrols at the same time every day

3 / 100

3) The private security industry primarily exists to safeguard:

A) Boundaries

B) Possessions

C) Privacy

D) Life

4 / 100

4) One of the primary motivations for documenting notes during or shortly after an incident is due to:

A) The supervisor must review the incident immediately afterwards

B) It saves colleagues the hassle of writing a report later in the shift

C) It is unlikely that the operator will remember to write a report later

D) The details recorded by the operator are more likely to be accurate

5 / 100

5) Prohibition signs are:

A) Green and white

B) Blue and white

C) Red and white

D) Yellow and black

6 / 100

6) When you go to court to share information, the most vital thing is that you are:

A) On-time

B) Polite

C) Wearing clothes appropriately

D) Prepared

7 / 100

7) A fire involving burning petrol would be categorized as what type of fire?

A) Class D

B) Class A

C) Class B

D) Class C

8 / 100

8) What element from the following can be eliminated to disrupt the fire triangle?

A) Powder

B) Smoke

C) Foam

D) Fuel

9 / 100

9) What is the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To submit customer service suggestions

B) To submit complaints against security personnel

C) To report lost goods to law enforcement

D) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

10 / 100

10) The most important explanation of 'run, hide, and tell' for a security worker is to get away.

A) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

B) The aggressors retreating, deserting everyone else

C) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

D) Shielding others from danger, while remaining behind

11 / 100

11) During a security alert, a security operative may be required to:

A) Tell to the local council

B) Arrange for trained first – aid staff to be available

C) Increase high-visibility patrols

D) Notify the fire and ambulance service that they may be needed soon

12 / 100

12) The best thing about communicating well while taking care of customers is that it:

A) Ensures all problems are solved

B) Reduces incidents of conflict

C) Makes the other person's life easier

D) Ensure compliance by aggressors

13 / 100

13) Somebody shrugging their shoulders is an example of:

A) Verbal communication

B) Non-verbal communication

C) Written communication

D) Oral communication

14 / 100

14) The right way to make an arrest is to:

A) Detain the individual, call the police and explain the reason for the arrest.

B) Explain the reason for the arrest, detain the individual and call the police

C) Contact the police, detain the individual and explain the reason for the arrest

D) Detain the individual, explain the reason for the arrest and call the police

15 / 100

15) What are the three factors of the fire triangle?

A) Heat, Food, Oxygen

B) Harmful, Fire, Oxygen

C) Heat, Oxygen, Fire

D) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen

16 / 100

16) The primary job of the Security Industry Authority (SIA) is to:

A) License some roles within the private security industry

B) Uphold the law and protect the public in the absence of police

C) Manage business owner's conduct

D) Regulate local taxi drivers by licensing

17 / 100

17) What are some of the ways that sexual predators may behave?

A) Closely watching vulnerable people

B) Texting someone

C) Being muscular

D) Preferring own company

18 / 100

18) The security operator must write down clear and thorough notes about what happened.

A) At the time or as soon as practicable

B) At any time as long as it is before the end of the shift

C) Within the next 24 hours

D) When the operator has some extra time

19 / 100

19) Signs of suspicious activity may be indicated by:

A) A group of people dressed in bizarre clothing

B) A social gathering outside a bar

C) People walking around a building watching CCTV camera

D) A group of men standing outside a railway station late at night

20 / 100

20) Seeking assistance and support in the aftermath of an incident is essential

A) Reduces the chances of developing emotional problems

B) Is mandated by employment law

C) Enable the likelihood of mental health issues

D) Is necessity of health and safety

21 / 100

21) Which of the following is a guiding principle of the Data Protection Act 2018?

A) Personal data shall be freely transferred abroad

B) Personal date shall not be kept for longer than is necessary

C) Personal data shall be subject to unlimited processing

D) Personal data shall be used for marketing purposes

22 / 100

22) One of the guiding principles of providing excellent customer service is to:

A) Instruct the customer to follow the prescribed steps

B) Create a rapport with the customer as soon as possible

C) Always question the customer’s viewpoint

D) Always consider the organization's perspective

23 / 100

23) One goal of the Private Security Industry Act is to:

A) Raise standards within the security industry

B) Make sure security guards are first-aid certified

C) Provide a means of hiring security operatives

D) Improve conviction rates in the security industry

24 / 100

24) For a security operative, the most appropriate interpretation of the term 'run, hide, and tell' is to evacuate:

A) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

B) The attackers, leaving all others behind

C) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

D) Others from the danger, while staying behind

25 / 100

25) The key thing in a fire procedure that security staff should be aware of is:

A) How to maintain fire extinguishers in good working order

B) The names of the fire marshals in the building

C) How to ensure that alarms are working properly

D) The location of fire exits and assembly points

26 / 100

26) What is a critical factor in managing crowd control during an emergency?

A) Do nothing

B) Use force to move people

C) Stay calm and take charge

D) Shout at customers

27 / 100

27) What is the preferred ink color for record keeping?

A) Black

B) Red

C) Blue

D) Green

28 / 100

28) A key objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) To regulate the private security industry, reduce crime and raise standards within the industry

B) Allow security companies to tender for public contracts

C) Stop police involvement in all security matters

D) Provide detailed information on staff pay and condition

29 / 100

29) What is the kind of permanent setup that has pipes with heads that turn on to stop a fire and keep it from spreading?

A) Integrated hose reel

B) Riser

C) Flooding System

D) Sprinkler

30 / 100

30) Non-verbal communication can involve:

A) Tone of voice

B) Technical language

C) Facial expression

D) Voicemails

31 / 100

31) What is most likely an indicator of suspicious activity?

A) An individual jogging around a structure

B) People trying to avoid being seen on CCTV

C) Someone clicking photographs of their friends

D) People inquiring about directions

32 / 100

32) Upon detecting a fire, the initial step a security operative should take is to:

A) Raise the alarm

B) Start evacuating the premises

C) Stay calm and wait for help to arrive

D) Move away from the fire

33 / 100

33) Assignment instructions give you directions on what to do.

A) Regarding insurance

B) For only the managers of a site

C) On the site’s roles and duties

D) That enable security officers to learn about staff

34 / 100

34) A situation that is right away dangerous to life or property is called:

A) An emergency

B) An occurrence

C) A close call

D) A danger

35 / 100

35) Why should we only make an arrest when there's no other option left?

A) Because the personal safety of a security operative can be put at risk

B) Because the manager of the premises would have to ensure the safety and security of the detained person

C) Because the police officers tend to prefer making arrests themselves

D) Because the security operative would have to complete an incident report

36 / 100

36) According to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, all premises should be:

A) Inspected for damp every 3 months

B) Clean and safe

C) Checked for noise pollution every 6 months

D) Secure and protected

37 / 100

37) What is the initial step in creating a 5-part statement?

A) Introduction

B) Chronological account

C) Close the statement

D) Set the scene

38 / 100

38) What should you do after a small accident happens at work?

A) A certified first aider should always be present

B) An accident book should be completed

C) Emergency medical supplies should be collected

D) An ambulance should always be called

39 / 100

39) When there's an urgent situation, some individuals might not want to go. This is known as:

A) Freezing

B) Surging

C) Denial

D) Flight

40 / 100

40) The duty of verifying that an area is free from obstructions during a fire alarm lies with:

A) Company human resources manager

B) Security officer in charge

C) Building’s fire marshal

D) Local fire and rescue officer

41 / 100

41) A main objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

C) Eliminate criminal elements from the industry

D) Decrease the number of security personnel in the industry

42 / 100

42) The probability of a fire occurring is likely decreased by:

A) Keeping waste close to public spaces

B) Getting appliances inspected every few years

C) Having good housekeeping practices

D) Implementing a comprehensive recycling system

43 / 100

43) Which of the following behaviours is most likely to indicate a sexual predator?

A) A person stumbling and staggering around the venue

B) A solo performer on the dance floor

C) A drunk person leaving with a group of intoxicated people.

D) A heavily intoxicated person leaving with s sober person.

44 / 100

44) Which of the following is a non-criminal case?

A) Theft

B) Fraud

C) Robery

D) Trespass

45 / 100

45) Marauding terror attacks include the use of:

A) Vehicles as a weapon

B) Firearms

C) Chemicals

D) Improvised explosive devices

46 / 100

46) What is a drawback or constraint associated with Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV)?

A) Poor camera coverage

B) Large camera lens

C) Widespread camera monitoring

D) Small camera lens

47 / 100

47) Which of the following is the best definition of an ‘occurrence’?

A) Risk of something happening

B) Something that may happen

C) Chance of happening something

D) Something that has happened

48 / 100

48) An employee should think about conflicts in order to:

A) Determine whether they have chosen the right career

B) Help deal with future incidents more effectively

C) Assess the prosecution risk

D) Assess the disciplinary risk

49 / 100

49) If someone requires treatment for a minor injury, a security operative should first contact:

A) A paramedic

B) A doctor

C) A first-aider

D) Their supervisor

50 / 100

50) Who should a security officer call first for a small first-aid problem?

A) A qualified first-aider

B) The supervisor

C) The health and safety manager

D) NHS Direct

51 / 100

51) If a suspicious package is discovered, the initial response that should be undertaken is to:

A) Inspect it and try to figure out what is inside

B) the appropriate place for this discussion

C) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

D) Contact army bomb disposal officers

52 / 100

52) It is important for an employee to discuss with colleagues how an incident was successfully resolved as:

A) It prohibits the employer from criticizing the incident response

B) The employee can know their colleagues’ lack of experience

C) It enables the employee to finish the written report

D) It allows colleagues to learn from an example of best practice

53 / 100

53) The most accurate definition of the threat level 'substantial' is that an attack is:

A) Unexpected

B) Unlikely

C) Assured

D) Likely

54 / 100

54) Which of the following is an outcome of equal opportunities legislation in the workplace?

A) Increased pay for men

B) Shorter work hours for women

C) Standardised pay scales

D) Fewer opportunities for men

55 / 100

55) What is the full form of AI?

A) Artificial Intel

B) Augmented Intelligence

C) Argument Incitement

D) Assignment Instructions

56 / 100

56) Which of these things would be considered an urgent situation?

A) Sunstroke

B) Crushed finger

C) Heart attack

D) Ankle sprain

57 / 100

57) What is the meaning of the word "theft"?

A) Threatening to take something from someone

B) Taking something without consent with no intention of returning it

C) Stealing something to later return it

D) Stealing using Force

58 / 100

58) What is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Freeze and surrender

B) Seek out a crowded place

C) Walk calmly away

D) Fight or flight

59 / 100

59) A security officer who is making an arrest is using the authority described in:

A) A common law

B) Health and safety law

C) Personal safety law

D) Data protection law

60 / 100

60) Among these options, what is not a good enough reason to arrest someone?

A) Causing injury to themselves

B) Refusing a search

C) Destroying property

D) Causing injury to other

61 / 100

61) A benefit of good teamwork is that it:

A) Lowers the requirement for risk assessments

B) Cut down the need for assignment instructions

C) Promotes safety

D) Escalate pay

62 / 100

62) What are the key things to keep in mind when dealing with customer needs?

A) Try and impress the customers who are better looking

B) We should not talk to customers

C) Make a good first impression

D) Customers are always wrong

63 / 100

63) The most likely consequence of invacuation is that:

A) People are placed directly in risk

B) There are limited escape routes

C) There is a physical barrier between you and the threat

D) The area is protected

64 / 100

64) After someone is arrested, the proof should be:

A) Sanitized

B) Preserved

C) Devastated

D) In proportion

65 / 100

65) What are the risks faced by working alone?

A) Injuries/Illness that may require medical attention

B) Nothing

C) Becoming bored

D) Feeling Drowsy

66 / 100

66) A danger of working alone in the private security field is:

A) Teamwork challenges

B) Being isolated and having to rely on technology for back up

C) Maintaining regular communication with the supervisor

D) Having CCTV as a backup plan in case of other security measures failing

67 / 100

67) What is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It is accessible to the general public at any time

D) It automatically restricts footage access for certain individuals

68 / 100

68) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Online gaming forums

B) Social media platforms

C) Colleagues and management

D) Entertainment websites and apps

69 / 100

69) A job done by a fire marshal is:

A) Ensure that fire extinguishers are replenished when necessary

B) Checking that fire doors are unobstructed

C) Counting all staff entering the building

D) Enabling people to exit the building in the event of a fire

70 / 100

70) What are the reasons for security operatives having a clear understanding of fire evacuation procedures?

A) To help them to judge whether the evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly

B) To enable them to re-enter the premises to search for anyone who is missing

C) So that they can provide effective assistance in the event of an emergency

D) To allow them to be the first to reach the assembly point and take a roll call

71 / 100

71) A case of verbal communication can be exemplified by:

A) Voicemail message

B) Electronic message sent in Morse code

C) Log-book entry

D) Textual message on cellular phone

72 / 100

72) A workplace danger is probably:

A) Un heatedness

B) A dangerous substance

C) Air cooling

D) Vivid lighting

73 / 100

73) If a suspicious package is discovered, the first action that should be taken is to:

A) Another location

B) Investigate it to see what's inside

C) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

D) Contact army bomb disposal officers

74 / 100

74) When someone with disabilities asks for help, it's important to follow the company rules because:

A) You may be being watched

B) They may be testing my customer service skills

C) They are a customer needing assistance

D) You may be reported if you do not

75 / 100

75) What is the first action that a security operative should take upon discovering a fire?

A) Open all doors and windows

B) Tackle the fire with the appropriate extinguisher

C) Raise the alarm!

D) Call the emergency services

76 / 100

76) Which of the following is not likely to be completing by a security operative?

A) Search log

B) Log of keys

C) Training record

D) Sign-in book for visitors

77 / 100

77) Which of the following is an element that does not pose a risk in the context of working alone?

A) Lack of support

B) Lack of welfare facilities

C) Lack of communication

D) Lack of conversation

78 / 100

78) An indicator of possible abuse is:

A) Insecurity

B) Assertiveness

C) Assurance

D) Arrogance

79 / 100

79) If a security operative is made aware of a vulnerable female following a domestic argument, the most appropriate action to take is to contact:

A) The local office of the Samaritans

B) St John Ambulance

C) The local police station

D) The local council

80 / 100

80) If there is a security danger, a security officer should:

A) Cut back on patrols to allow operatives to focus on other priorities

B) Keep the emergency services updated every hour on the situation

C) Maintain organised search procedures

D) Inform the local MP of the security threat

81 / 100

81) The aim of establishing effective evacuation procedures is to:

A) Help to ensure the safety of yourself and others

B) Ensure that the fire service can easily access the venue

C) Optimize fire marshals' search time

D) Ensure everyone goes to the same fire assembly point

82 / 100

82) What is an instance of a workplace hazard?

A) Staircase

B) Correctly stored materials

C) Closed fire doors

D) Unblocked fire exits

83 / 100

83) If someone is lying on the ground and looks like they touched an electrical cable while unconscious, the first thing to do is:

A) Start first-aid treatment immediately

B) Shake them hard

C) Drape a blanket over them to keep them warm

D) Turn off the power

84 / 100

84) If something is proven to be suspicious, a security worker must:

A) Do not leave your position until the emergency services arrive

B) Evacuate using the safety exit

C) Photograph the suspicious object for the disposal experts

D) Do not move until the bomb squad arrive

85 / 100

85) The 1974 Health and Safety at Work Act is for:

A) Employers only

B) Both employers and employees

C) Employees only

D) Companies only

86 / 100

86) Which of the following is performed on a daily basis?

A) Accident Record

B) Handover report

C) Lost and found report

D) Documentation of an incident

87 / 100

87) Following involvement in a violent incident, it would be most advantageous for a staff member to seek support by:

A) Posting details of the incident on social media

B) Sending a letter to the local MP

C) Talking through the incident with colleagues

D) Celebrating with friends

88 / 100

88) Which of the following roles is not considered a licensed security role?

A) Close protection operative

B) Door Supervisor

C) Cash and valuables in transit operative

D) Event steward

89 / 100

89) In a crisis, people may get scared and rush toward tight exits. This is likely to lead to:

A) Crushing

B) Shivering

C) Surging

D) Fight or Flight

90 / 100

90) To make sure private information stays safe, a security worker needs to:

A) Talk about work-related topics in a place where others can hear you

B) Talk to your family about work-related problems

C) Maintain confidentiality

D) Publish work-related information on social media

91 / 100

91) What are the three things needed for a fire to happen?

A) A heat source, air and oxygen

B) A heat source, paper and wood.

C) Oxygen, Fuel and a heat source

D) Air, Oxygen and fuel

92 / 100

92) As per the behavioral standards established by the Security Industry Authority (SIA), a security operative is required to:

A) Be laid-back

B) Wear comfortable clothes

C) Be physically strong

D) Use moderate language

93 / 100

93) What color shade of a sign indicate safe conditions?

A) Blue

B) Red

C) Green

D) Yellow

94 / 100

94) What kind of arrest can a security worker perform?

A) Taking into custody with a warrant

B) Citizen’s arrest

C) Police take into custody

D) Security industry arrest

95 / 100

95) Which of the following is an approach that does not contribute to keeping personal information secure?"

A) Meeting the legal obligations of data protection legislation

B) Discussing work issues outside the workplace

C) Following the rules and regulations of the organization

D) Keeping information secret

96 / 100

96) What is the abbreviation ABH short for?

A) Actual Bad Harm

B) Actual Bodily Harm

C) Actual Body Hurt

D) Actual Bad Hurt

97 / 100

97) According to the SIA’s standards for behaviour for security operatives’, a security operative should be:

A) Physically strong

B) Professional

C) Computer literate

D) Open to working

98 / 100

98) Security operatives must look after vulnerable people in order to:

A) Save their employer’s reputation

B) Prevent them from becoming victims of crime

C) Stop them from being arrested

D) Stop the police from coming to the premises

99 / 100

99) What is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

B) Reduced need for security staff

C) Increased competition among colleagues

D) Increased individual recognition

100 / 100

100) The goal of assignment instructions is to offer:

A) Insurance policy information

B) Guidelines about site duties and roles

C) Staff details

D) Guidelines for site managers only

Your score is

The average score is 73%

Module 1B

/100

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

B) To estimate costs for safety equipment

C) To limit employee movement around the premises

D) To improve employee productivity and performance

2 / 100

2) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It means fewer security staff are needed

B) It leads to more competition among staff

C) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

D) It increases individual recognition

3 / 100

3) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is possible but not likely

B) When it is highly improbable

C) When it is unlikely but still possible

D) When it is almost certain to happen

4 / 100

4) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

5 / 100

5) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

B) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

C) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

D) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

6 / 100

6) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A heart attack

D) An epileptic seizure

7 / 100

7) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

C) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

8 / 100

8) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

C) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

9 / 100

9) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Are an employee running late for a meeting

B) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

C) Might be conducting suspicious activities

D) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

10 / 100

10) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

B) Guiding someone to a safe place

C) Depriving someone of their freedom

D) Informing someone of their legal rights

11 / 100

11) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) Promote high standards within the industry

C) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

D) Guarantee low prices for security services

12 / 100

12) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) SIA standards and the company's established values

B) Personal preferences for handling situations

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Customer wishes and demands

13 / 100

13) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

D) To avoid complaints from individuals

14 / 100

14) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for public awareness

B) Accessed only by authorized personnel

C) Deleted after one month

D) Reviewed by any staff member

15 / 100

15) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Notify the victim's family before taking action

D) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

16 / 100

16) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

B) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

C) Alert the appropriate emergency services

D) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

17 / 100

17) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To show authority and control over the situation

B) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

18 / 100

18) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

B) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

C) Common illnesses among employees

D) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

19 / 100

19) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

B) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

C) Taking part in group activities with friends

D) Directing security to a distressed individual

20 / 100

20) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

B) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

C) Local councils handle all the cases

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

21 / 100

21) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

B) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

C) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

D) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

22 / 100

22) What does the term "arrest" generally mean?

A) To take away someone's liberty

B) To escort someone to safety

C) To inform someone of their rights

D) To question someone about a crime

23 / 100

23) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Work-related personal projects

B) Employee social gatherings outside work

C) Dress code policies

D) Potential promotions within the company

24 / 100

24) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire exits

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of hazardous materials

D) The location of fire extinguishers

25 / 100

25) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Writing a polite email

B) Smiling or frowning

C) Sending a text message

D) Using hand signals to direct someone

26 / 100

26) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A colleague having an asthma attack

B) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

C) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

D) A package left unattended

27 / 100

27) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Changes in behavior

B) Consistent injuries

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Positive self-esteem

28 / 100

28) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It never captures sensitive information

B) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

C) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

D) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

29 / 100

29) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

B) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

C) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

D) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

30 / 100

30) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Call their superior before taking any actions

B) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

C) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

D) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

31 / 100

31) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

32 / 100

32) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

B) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

33 / 100

33) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

B) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

C) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

34 / 100

34) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

B) Promoting competition among local businesses

C) Limiting communication between security teams

D) Reducing opportunities for crimes

35 / 100

35) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Writing down passwords in a notebook

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

36 / 100

36) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break durations

B) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

C) Documenting found items

D) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

37 / 100

37) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking calmly

B) Speaking in an aggressive tone

C) Being confrontational

D) Writing down instructions

38 / 100

38) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It promotes communication and collaboration

B) It encourages competition among colleagues

C) It enables individuals to work independently

D) It increases individual accountability

39 / 100

39) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Verbal warning from their employer

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Civil or criminal prosecution

40 / 100

40) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Providing legal representation to businesses

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

41 / 100

41) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

B) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

C) Photograph it and then throw it away

D) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

42 / 100

42) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

B) Offering financial support to security contractors

C) Regulating the security industry through licensing

D) Training security staff for private companies

43 / 100

43) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can detain individuals until they confess

B) Have no special powers of arrest

C) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

D) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

44 / 100

44) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

45 / 100

45) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

B) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

C) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

D) To submit complaints against security personnel

46 / 100

46) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Searching for a crowded area

B) Fight or flight

C) Freezing and surrendering

D) Calmly walking away

47 / 100

47) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

B) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

D) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

48 / 100

48) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) A noise complaint

B) An assault

C) Parking offenses

D) Littering

49 / 100

49) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Speaking clearly to someone

B) Reading a text message aloud

C) Making a phone call

D) Using hand gestures

50 / 100

50) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A search register

B) An accident report

C) A visitor log

D) A duty sheet

51 / 100

51) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

D) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

52 / 100

52) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To review an incident but take no reflective action

B) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

C) To completely overlook the incident and move on

D) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

53 / 100

53) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for future issues

B) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

54 / 100

54) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A colleague asking for help with a task

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A manager requesting information

D) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

55 / 100

55) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To avoid working extra hours

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To improve the reputation of the venue

D) To comply with legal requirements

56 / 100

56) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Directly confront the individual

B) Contact the transport's customer service team

C) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

D) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

57 / 100

57) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that might cause occasional distractions

B) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

C) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

D) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

58 / 100

58) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

B) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

C) Hosting private social events for the community

D) Increasing entry fees to control access

59 / 100

59) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Engaging the person with professional customer service

B) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

C) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

D) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

60 / 100

60) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

B) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

C) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

61 / 100

61) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

D) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

62 / 100

62) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

B) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

C) Lift the load using the back muscles

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

63 / 100

63) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Report the injury to their employer

B) Only document it if they require medical treatment

C) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

64 / 100

64) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

B) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

C) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

D) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

65 / 100

65) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Conducting highly visible patrols

B) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

C) Ignoring minor incidents

D) Preventing interactions with the public

66 / 100

66) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is extremely unlikely

B) An attack is possible but unlikely

C) An attack is highly likely

D) An attack is likely

67 / 100

67) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Reviewing old criminal offenses

B) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

C) Planning out the route to the venue

D) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

68 / 100

68) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

B) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

C) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

D) To provide contact details for medical services

69 / 100

69) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Removing them from the premises

B) Clear and concise communication

C) Providing immediate medical attention

D) Offering physical assistance

70 / 100

70) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

D) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

71 / 100

71) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

C) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

D) By providing only general instructions without specific details

72 / 100

72) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

B) To avoid supporting each individual customer

C) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

D) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

73 / 100

73) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

C) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

D) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

74 / 100

74) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

B) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

C) May result in increased stress for the security operative

D) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

75 / 100

75) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

B) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

C) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

D) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

76 / 100

76) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

D) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

77 / 100

77) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Dishonesty

B) Aggression

C) Integrity

D) Indifference

78 / 100

78) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Maintenance person

B) Customer support agent

C) Vehicle immobilizer

D) Personal trainer

79 / 100

79) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

B) To add a formal tone to the conversation

C) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

D) To make the communication sound more complex

80 / 100

80) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

B) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

C) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

D) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

81 / 100

81) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Release of dangerous substances

B) An individual stealing sensitive information

C) Use of firearms

D) Hacking into a company's computer systems

82 / 100

82) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Ignore their complaints directly

B) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

C) Deny there's any problem

D) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

83 / 100

83) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A security operative speaking to a customer

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A facial expression showing confusion

84 / 100

84) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

C) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

D) Check the building for any missing people

85 / 100

85) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Removing the fuel

B) Adding more oxygen

C) Adding more heat

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

86 / 100

86) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When arranging office furniture

B) When discussing personal matters outside of work

C) When interacting with hostile customers

D) When scheduling breaks for security staff

87 / 100

87) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Optimized focus on work projects

B) Enhanced team dynamics

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Developing negative coping mechanisms

88 / 100

88) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

B) Immediately evacuate the building

C) Activate the fire alarm

D) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

89 / 100

89) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

B) Providing first aid to injured staff

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

90 / 100

90) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual who appears disoriented

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

91 / 100

91) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

B) To gather information about the offense

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

92 / 100

92) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) State the total number of visitors

B) Recount only the parts that seem important

C) List the names of staff present

D) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

93 / 100

93) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

B) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

C) Licensing is only required for large security firms

D) Licensing is optional for all security companies

94 / 100

94) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

B) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

C) Reduced access to basic health support

D) Increased exposure to potential violence

95 / 100

95) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

B) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

96 / 100

96) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

C) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

97 / 100

97) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Colleagues and management

B) Online gaming communities

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Social media platforms

98 / 100

98) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Having a discussion with a family member

99 / 100

99) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

D) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

100 / 100

100) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It removes the need to contact emergency services

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1C

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Stop and search for the fire's source

D) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

2 / 92

2) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break times

B) Documenting visitor logs

C) Documenting found items

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

3 / 92

3) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Investigating the cause before taking action.

B) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

C) Contacting emergency services.

D) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

4 / 92

4) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Denying that there is any issue

B) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

C) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

D) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

5 / 92

5) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

B) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

C) Asking security staff for directions

D) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

6 / 92

6) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform a manager and log the incident

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

7 / 92

7) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) The use of firearms.

B) The release of hazardous substances.

C) Theft of sensitive information.

D) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

8 / 92

8) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) Instructions from colleagues

C) Personal preferences in handling situations

D) SIA standards and the company's values

9 / 92

9) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

C) High-visibility patrols

D) Preventing interactions with the public

10 / 92

10) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It eliminates the need for other security measures

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It removes the need to call emergency services

11 / 92

11) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Reviewed by any staff member

B) Deleted after one month

C) Shared on social media for awareness

D) Accessible only by authorized personnel

12 / 92

12) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Have no special powers of arrest

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

13 / 92

13) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When managing office furniture layout

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When dealing with aggressive customers

D) When planning breaks for security staff

14 / 92

14) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Water

B) Wet chemical

C) CO2 Gas

D) Foam

15 / 92

15) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Reducing communication between team members

B) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

C) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

D) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

16 / 92

16) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Participation in team-building activities

B) Allocation of lunch breaks

C) Compensation and employee benefits

D) Access to company resources

17 / 92

17) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Using an aggressive tone.

B) Speaking in a calm manner.

C) Being argumentative.

D) Providing written instructions.

18 / 92

18) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It fosters communication and cooperation

B) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

C) It allows individuals to work in isolation

D) It increases individual responsibility

19 / 92

19) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

B) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

C) A child playing outdoors with friends

D) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

20 / 92

20) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Sprinkler system

B) Water

C) Fire blanket

D) Fire hose

21 / 92

21) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Ensuring security personnel leave first

B) Blocking access to all staircases

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

22 / 92

22) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Trade unions

B) Advice Citizens Bureau

C) The local community center

D) Samaritans

23 / 92

23) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

B) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

C) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

D) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

24 / 92

24) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Having a clear sense of direction

B) Being under the influence of alcohol

C) Attending an event with a group of friends

D) Being confident and energetic

25 / 92

25) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

B) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

C) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

D) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

26 / 92

26) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It ensures no one will challenge actions

B) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

C) It prevents involvement from local authorities

D) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

27 / 92

27) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

D) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

28 / 92

28) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

C) Training security personnel for private firms.

D) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

29 / 92

29) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving petrol or paint

B) A fire involving wood or rubber

C) A fire involving hot cooking oils

D) A fire involving butane gas

30 / 92

30) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It increases risks for both staff and the public

B) It reduces the need for training and oversight

C) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

D) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

31 / 92

31) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

B) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

C) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

D) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

32 / 92

32) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

B) To help them avoid discussing the incident

C) To review an incident without taking reflective action

D) To completely disregard the incident and move on

33 / 92

33) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Water, heat, and oxygen

B) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

C) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

D) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

34 / 92

34) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

C) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

D) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

35 / 92

35) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red circle with a line through it

B) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

C) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

D) A blue square with a cross

36 / 92

36) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking action

B) Separate the victim from the attacker

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

D) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

37 / 92

37) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

B) To question the suspect about the offense

C) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

D) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

38 / 92

38) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

C) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

D) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

39 / 92

39) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Writing a polite email

C) Smiling or frowning

D) Using hand signals to direct someone

40 / 92

40) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Help vulnerable people evacuate

B) Check the fire extinguishers

C) Evacuate the building immediately

D) Sound the alarm

41 / 92

41) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual who appears disoriented

D) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

42 / 92

42) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Detain the individual

B) Escort the individual off the premises

C) Proceed to question the individual

D) Immediately search the individual

43 / 92

43) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

B) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

C) To avoid attending required safety training.

D) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

44 / 92

44) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) The state brings charges against individuals

B) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

C) Local councils manage all cases

D) Private individuals initiate cases in court

45 / 92

45) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Good team-building activities

B) New opportunities for equipment

C) Financial bonuses

D) Effective practices

46 / 92

46) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

B) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

C) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

D) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

47 / 92

47) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) State the total number of visitors

B) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

C) List the names of all staff present

D) Recount only the seemingly important parts

48 / 92

48) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It can only be used outdoors

B) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

C) It cannot record any criminal activities

D) It can only be used indoors

49 / 92

49) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

B) A manager requesting information

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A colleague seeking help with a task

50 / 92

50) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

B) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

51 / 92

51) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Assisting a lost individual

B) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

C) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

D) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

52 / 92

52) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Control

B) Clear

C) Conclusion

D) Confirm

53 / 92

53) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Increasing entry fees for access control

B) Organizing private gatherings within the community

C) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

D) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

54 / 92

54) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Avoid communication with their legal representative

B) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

C) Review their statement and the relevant case details

D) Wait until the last minute to arrive

55 / 92

55) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

B) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

C) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

D) Limited access to basic health support.

56 / 92

56) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of first aid kits

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of hazardous materials

57 / 92

57) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

B) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Try to administer first aid without training

58 / 92

58) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

B) To inform the media about the arrest

C) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

D) To immediately leave the scene

59 / 92

59) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

B) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

C) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

D) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

60 / 92

60) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

B) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

C) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

D) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

61 / 92

61) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Booking a taxi for the individual

B) Requesting assistance from the police

C) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

D) Using local support organizations

62 / 92

62) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) A verbal warning from their employer

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Temporary suspension from their job

D) Requirement to attend additional training

63 / 92

63) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime occurs

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

C) Call the transport's customer service team

D) Confront the individual directly

64 / 92

64) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

B) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

65 / 92

65) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

B) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

C) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

D) Inform a manager and record the incident.

66 / 92

66) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

B) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

C) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

D) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

67 / 92

67) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A power outage

B) A water leak

C) A gas leak

D) A fire

68 / 92

68) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

B) Cases of common colds among employees

C) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

D) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

69 / 92

69) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class F

B) Class B

C) Class D

D) Class A

70 / 92

70) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Burglary

B) Breach of contract

C) Assault

D) Murder

71 / 92

71) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A heart attack

B) A software update on a laptop

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A slip on a wet floor

72 / 92

72) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Dress code policies

C) Employee social gatherings outside of work

D) Work-related personal projects

73 / 92

73) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

74 / 92

74) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

B) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

C) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

D) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

75 / 92

75) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

B) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

D) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

76 / 92

76) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Preserved and handed over to the police

B) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

C) Disposed of and logged

D) Photographed and then discarded

77 / 92

77) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Private investigator

B) Delivery driver

C) Manned Guarding

D) Office receptionist

78 / 92

78) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and tracking individuals

B) Engaging in group activities with friends

C) Guiding security towards a distressed person

D) Offering aid to people in distress

79 / 92

79) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Unlikely but conceivable

B) Highly improbable

C) Possible but unlikely

D) Nearly certain

80 / 92

80) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

B) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

C) What they observed and their names

D) Any previous self-protection training they had

81 / 92

81) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

82 / 92

82) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

B) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

C) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

D) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

83 / 92

83) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) A security benefits scheme for employees

C) The approved contractor scheme

D) Recruiting new security officers

84 / 92

84) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 300 meters.

B) Approximately 400 meters.

C) Approximately 200 meters.

D) Approximately 100 meters.

85 / 92

85) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

B) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

C) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

D) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

86 / 92

86) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

B) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

C) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

D) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

87 / 92

87) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Improving team morale

B) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

C) Preparing to use physical restraints

D) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

88 / 92

88) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To reduce security visibility to the public

B) To avoid any staff interactions

C) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

D) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

89 / 92

89) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To avoid potential liability for issues

C) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

D) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

90 / 92

90) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

B) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

C) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

91 / 92

91) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

B) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

C) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

D) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

92 / 92

92) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

B) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

C) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

D) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 1D

/72

SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI

Principles of Working in the Private Security Industry -MCQ

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 72

1) What should a security operative do if they see an individual acting suspiciously and taking photographs of a restricted area?

A) Report the activity to the control room or management

B) Immediately challenge them to prove their identity

C) Confront the individual immediately and demand they delete the pictures

D) Ignore the behaviour unless they see a crime being committed

2 / 72

2) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can help convey emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Writing a polite email to someone

D) Smiling or frowning

3 / 72

3) Which of the following is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

B) Preventing and detecting unauthorised activities

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Managing public relations for private companies

4 / 72

4) Which of the following is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It will remove the need to call emergency services

B) It removes the need for any other security measures

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

5 / 72

5) Which of the following is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Increased individual recognition

B) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

C) Reduced number of security staff needed

D) Increased competition among colleagues

6 / 72

6) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) preserved and handed to the police

B) kept confidential and withheld from the police

C) photographed and then discarded

D) disposed of and noted in a written logbook

7 / 72

7) Which of the following is a main feature of criminal law?

A) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

B) Local councils handle all the cases

C) Victims of the crime always brings the case to court

D) The state brings the cases against individuals

8 / 72

8) The alarm sounds and smoke is seen coming from a nearby room, which of the following emergencies is likely occurring?

A) Fire

B) Power failure

C) Water leak

D) Gas leak

9 / 72

9) What do the terms run, hide and tell signify to a security operative in the event of a terror threat?

A) Run to safety, hide if necessary and tell the authorities about the situation

B) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment and tell the media

C) Run far from the threat, hide away and tell the authorities about the situation

D) Run home, hide from the threat and tell others on social media

10 / 72

10) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can effectively improve security for security operatives?

A) Increasing the use of entry fees for access control

B) Organising private gatherings within the community

C) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

D) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

11 / 72

11) In which of the following situations must effective communication be used?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When managing the layout of furniture in the office

D) When planning breaks for security staff

12 / 72

12) Which of the following is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

B) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

C) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

D) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

13 / 72

13) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It is accessible to the general public at any time

B) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) It may prevent certain individuals from accessing footage

D) It never captures sensitive information

14 / 72

14) Which or the following is a significant consequence that a security operative may face if they make a false arrest?

A) Verbal warning from their employer

B) Temporary suspension from their job

C) Civil or criminal prosecution

D) Requirement to attend additional training

15 / 72

15) Which of the following is an example of an internal customer for a security company working at a venue?

A) A member of the public attending an event

B) A delivery driver making a drop-off

C) An employee of the venue

D) A window cleaner contracted by the venue

16 / 72

16) Evaluating security incidents is key to recognising:

A) financial bonuses

B) good practices

C) new opportunities for equipment

D) good team building activities

17 / 72

17) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place away from ignition sources

B) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

C) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near the electrical equipment

D) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

18 / 72

18) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Writing down instructions

B) Being confrontational

C) Speaking calmly

D) Speaking in a aggressive tone

19 / 72

19) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

C) Check the building for the fire's location

D) Start a search for the source of the fire

20 / 72

20) How does accurate record-keeping help in a legal situation?

A) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

B) It ensures a favourable outcome in court

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

21 / 72

21) Which of the following must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Personal preferences in handling situations

B) Instructions from colleagues

C) SIA standards and the company's values

D) Customer wishes and demands

22 / 72

22) Which of the following is an indicator of predatory behaviour?

A) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

B) Directing a security to a distressed individual

C) Taking part in group activities with friends

D) Clearly observing and monitoring individuals

23 / 72

23) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire extinguishers

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire wardens

D) The location of hazardous materials

24 / 72

24) When dealing with an upset customer, which of the following actions helps resolve the situation?

A) Avoid directly acknowledging their concerns

B) Tell the customer to come back later when they are less upset

C) Put yourself in the customers position and accept responsibility

D) Deny that there is any issue at all

25 / 72

25) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

C) To prevent the suspect from causing injury to themselves

D) To question the suspect about the offence

26 / 72

26) Which of the following is a basic principle of evacuation?

A) Making sure security personnel leave first

B) Locking all entrances and exits

C) Making sure everyone stays calm and follows procedure

D) Blocking access to all staircases

27 / 72

27) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A heart attack

D) A software update on a laptop

28 / 72

28) Which of the following must be done when a security operative is preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Wait until the last minute to arrive

B) Avoid communication with their legal representative

C) Review their statement and the significant case details

D) Look at as little information as possible and make no preparations

29 / 72

29) The main purpose of the anti-terror hotline is to:

A) provide details on terrorism prevention training

B) report threats needing urgent police action

C) provide contact details to the correct medical services

D) report non-urgent suspicious activity

30 / 72

30) Which of the following is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and length of break times

B) Documenting visitor logs

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting found items

31 / 72

31) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) reviewed by only staff member

B) shared on social media to raise awareness

C) accessed only by authorised personnel

D) deleted after one month

32 / 72

32) What is the primary reason for a security operative to wear high-visibility clothing while on patrol?

A) To clearly identify them as an emergency service worker

B) To make their presence known and act as a deterrent

C) To reflect the uniform of local police services

D) To keep warm during cold weather

33 / 72

33) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only general instructions without specific details

B) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

C) By ensuring the security operative meets the client's requirements

D) By allowing the security operative to change their duties as they see fit

34 / 72

34) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence even if nobody was injured

B) A dangerous occurrence only if somebody was injured

C) Cases of accidental slips that result in minor bruises

D) Cases of common colds among employees

35 / 72

35) Which of the following is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) Raising performance standards within the private security industry

B) Reducing the need for customer service in security roles

C) Allowing security companies to operate without regulation

D) Limiting the number of security contractors in the market

36 / 72

36) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

B) Always arriving on time and being well presented

C) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

D) Displaying a lack of confidence and insecurity

37 / 72

37) What elements must be present for a fire to exist?

A) Heat, carbon dioxide and water

B) Oxygen, fuel and heat

C) Water, heat and oxygen

D) Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide

38 / 72

38) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A manager requesting information

B) A colleague asking for help with a task

C) A team member needing assistance with a report

D) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

39 / 72

39) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the current Health and Safety at Work etc Act?

A) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

B) Conducting health and safety assessments only when there is an accident

C) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

D) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

40 / 72

40) Which of the following describes necessary force?

A) Force that is allowed if it results in a positive outcome

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgement

C) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

D) Force that is used when other options have been exhausted

41 / 72

41) Upon discovering a fire, what is the first action that must be taken?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Start a search for the source of the fire

D) Wait for the fire to burn out

42 / 72

42) Which of the following describes the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To submit criticism against security personnel

B) To submit suggestions regarding customer service

C) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

D) To report lost goods to Law Enforcement

43 / 72

43) Which classification of fire involves materials such as paper, wood and textiles?

A) Class F

B) Class A

C) Class D

D) Class B

44 / 72

44) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Colleagues and management

B) Social media platforms

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Online gaming forums

45 / 72

45) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Regulating the security industry through licensing

B) Training security staff for private companies

C) Offering financial support to security contractors

D) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

46 / 72

46) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

47 / 72

47) A main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

C) Remove any criminal elements from the industry

D) Increase the number of security personnel in the industry

48 / 72

48) What firefighting equipment must be used for small kitchen fires, like a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Water

B) Sprinkler system

C) Fire hose

D) Fire blanket

49 / 72

49) Which of the following is a key element in deterring anti-social behaviour?

A) Preventing interactions with the public

B) High-profile patrols

C) Neglecting minor incidents

D) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

50 / 72

50) Which of the following is a key component of an emergency plan?

A) A map of the local area's restaurants and shops

B) An evacuation procedure, including assembly points

C) A schedule for the next week's security patrols

D) A detailed list of all staff personal contact numbers

51 / 72

51) Which of the following is not an example of duty of care?

A) Assisting an individual who seems lost

B) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

C) Neglecting an individual as they do not appear vulnerable

D) Raising concerns regarding an individual's safety

52 / 72

52) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To avoid potential liability for any future issues

C) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

D) To follow legal requirements and document an incident

53 / 72

53) Which of the following is the correct way to explain how an incident unravelled in a report?

A) Describe the different stages leading up to it

B) Recount only the parts that seem important

C) State the total number of visitors

D) List the names of staff present

54 / 72

54) Which of the following is not one of the 4 Cs?

A) Confirm

B) Clear

C) Conclusion

D) Control

55 / 72

55) To maintain a safe environment, security operatives should inspect their equipment (e.g., radios, torches) to ensure they are:

A) the latest model on the market

B) fully functional and correctly maintained

C) easily concealable from the public

D) used only by one person during a shift

56 / 72

56) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

B) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

C) Escalate immediately to the highest authority

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

57 / 72

57) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To aid them in avoiding discussions on the incident

B) To look back on an incident but take no reflective action

C) To overlook the incident completely and move on

D) To assess any actions and to reflect on an incident

58 / 72

58) Which of the following is an appropriate response when witnessing suspicious behaviour on public transport?

A) Confront the individual directly

B) Only report it if a crime takes place

C) Use the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

D) Call the transport's customer service team

59 / 72

59) Which of the following is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It enables individuals to work independently

B) It increases individual accountability

C) It promotes communication and collaboration

D) It encourages competition amongst colleagues

60 / 72

60) Which of the following behaviours suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual consistently entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears unsure of their surroundings

61 / 72

61) Which of the following roles requires an up to date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Manned Guarding

B) Delivery driver

C) Office receptionist

D) Private Investigator

62 / 72

62) What is the second step to take when making a citizen's arrest?

A) Immediately perform a search

B) Contact the police

C) Proceed to question the individual

D) Detain the individual

63 / 72

63) What does the term arrest mean?

A) To escort someone to safety

B) To inform someone of their rights

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To take away someone's liberty

64 / 72

64) When making arrests, security operatives:

A) can arrest anyone suspected of any offence

B) can detain individuals until they confess

C) have no special powers of arrest

D) have the same powers of arrest as police officers

65 / 72

65) Which of the following is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Freeze and surrender

B) Fight or flight

C) Walk calmly away

D) Seek out a crowded place

66 / 72

66) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Observing people and places to gather information

B) Speaking with security staff members to ask for directions

C) Monitoring a public event as a licenced CCTV operator

D) Taking a number of different pictures of a landmark

67 / 72

67) When interacting with a police officer, a security operative must always:

A) demand the police officer show their identification immediately

B) allow the police officer to take control of the situation

C) offer personal opinions on the legal matter

D) refuse to hand over any evidence

68 / 72

68) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Being confident and energetic

69 / 72

69) Security operatives must understand the scope of the CCTVs cover to:

A) provide unrestricted access to all employees

B) ensure CCTV is used as the sole security measure

C) be aware of blind spots that CCTV may not see

D) make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

70 / 72

70) Which of the following must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Notify the victim's family before taking any action

D) Allow the victim and the attacker to resolve the issue

71 / 72

71) An attack is described as having a low threat level when it is:

A) almost certain

B) highly likely in the near future

C) highly unlikely

D) unlikely but possible

72 / 72

72) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Dress code policies

C) Employee social gatherings outside work

D) Work-related personal projects

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Module 2

/60

SO Module 2

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 2" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 60

1) Positional asphyxia is most likely to be caused by:

A) an arm hold

B) contact with non-weapon items

C) restraint on the ground

D) strikes and kicks

2 / 60

2) When managing queues, it is important to assess what?

A) Customer behaviour

B) Customer age

C) Customer religion

D) Customer height

3 / 60

3) Following an arrest by a security officer, the next action should be to call the:

A) police

B) site owner

C) local press

D) security company

4 / 60

4) You can increase your personal safety at work by:

A) drinking plenty of coffee

B) staying alert

C) taking longer breaks drinking plenty of coffee staying alert

D) noting pocketbook entries

5 / 60

5) Information on who security officers should allow onto a site can be found in the:

A) health and safety policy

B) fire policy

C) entrance book

D) admissions policy

6 / 60

6) Metal detectors in search areas are mainly used to prevent the entry of

A) mobile phones

B) alcohol

C) weapons

D) drugs

7 / 60

7) Following a serious incident and to preserve evidence, access to a crime scene should be what?

A) Unrestricted

B) Restricted

C) Photographed

D) Open to the public

8 / 60

8) A security officer would secure any unauthorised items found during a search by following:

A) a supervisor's instructions

B) the advice of colleagues

C) police guidelines

D) the assignment instructions

9 / 60

9) Which of the following incidents would require a call to the emergency services?

A) A check-call

B) A fire

C) A leaking tap

D) A trip or fall

10 / 60

10) Which of the following is not a statutory agency employee?

A) A police officer

B) A national health service employee

C) A fire officer

D) A health and safety inspector

11 / 60

11) If a visitor refuses to be searched at the access point to a site the security officer should:

A) refuse entry and report the matter to the police

B) allow entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

C) arrest the visitor for refusing to be searched

D) refuse entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

12 / 60

12) What pro-word means 'my message ends, please reply?

A) Wait

B) Over

C) Out

D) Repeat

13 / 60

13) Security officers should only use physical interventions if they:

A) are trained

B) are martial arts experts

C) have authority from the police

D) do not have backup

14 / 60

14) Which of the following is an example of a general search?

A) Only males are searched

B) Everyone is searched

C) Searches carried out during daylight hours only

D) Searches carried out only at night

15 / 60

15) During incidents, dynamic risk assessments help to:

A) prevent prosecution

B) keep everyone safe

C) only keep yourself safe

D) prevent crimes

16 / 60

16) Which types of people are most likely to put your personal safety at greater risk?

A) Elderly people

B) Lone individuals

C) Young people

D) Intoxicated people

17 / 60

17) A fire alarm system can assist a security officer by:

A) showing evacuation routes

B) alerting officers to incidents

C) alerting officers to intruders

D) informing the ambulance service

18 / 60

18) Safety is the responsibility of:

A) health and safety personnel

B) everyone

C) employees only

D) employers only

19 / 60

19) While on duty, a security officer can get assistance, guidance and emergency support from:

A) the security control room

B) the security manager's office during office hours

C) other staff from the organisation

D) human resources

20 / 60

20) Which of the following is not an example of illegal drugs litter?

A) Scorched tinfoil

B) Discarded needles

C) Empty beer cans

D) Burnt spoons

21 / 60

21) Using personal protective equipment (PPE) correctly will:

A) make you comfortable

B) save you time

C) protect you from harm

D) make your job easier

22 / 60

22) What is the main risk with a needle-stick injury?

A) Sickness

B) Infectious diseases

C) Pain

D) Bleeding

23 / 60

23) Check calls contribute to a security officer's:

A) efficiency

B) conduct

C) safety

D) time-keeping

24 / 60

24) Ignoring your personal safety during a conflict situation will most likely:

A) increase the risk of escalation

B) increase the need for extra staff

C) reduce the need for reports

D) decrease the risk of escalation

25 / 60

25) How would you spell the word CAT using the phonetic alphabet?

A) Charlie, Alpha, Tango

B) Cat, Apple, Tunisia

C) Charlie, Apple, Tango

D) Charlie, Alpha, Toga

26 / 60

26) What should a security officer do immediately on activation of a fire alarm?

A) Silence the alarm while they investigate

B) Check the control panel for the location

C) Implement full evacuation of the site

D) Ignore it until confirmed as genuine

27 / 60

27) Which of the following statements describes best practice when carrying out searches?

A) Anyone can be searched on entry to a site

B) Permission by the subject must always be given before a search

C) Authorisation by a supervisor must be granted before any search begins

D) Force can be used if a search is refused

28 / 60

28) Which of the following would be considered a type of security technology?

A) Speed ramps on the approach road

B) security guard at barrier control

C) A swipe card door access key

D) Steel grills on windows

29 / 60

29) On finding some damage on the site during a patrol, who should you report it to initially?

A) The control room

B) The site owner

C) The accounts department

D) The health and safety team

30 / 60

30) The most effective way to safely dispose of a needle is to put it in:

A) a bottle

B) newspaper, wrapped up

C) a sharps box

D) the waste bin

31 / 60

31) While searching the interior of a vehicle, you will not be required to search:

A) the exhaust pipe

B) under the carpets

C) in door pockets

D) under the seats

32 / 60

32) Which of the following requests for access should make a security officer suspicious?

A) No appointment confirmed but with a named contact

B) No appointment confirmed and no known contact

C) An appointment confirmed with a named contact

D) An appointment that has been notified to security

33 / 60

33) A feature of security systems is that they:

A) record customer preferences in a retail shop

B) identify the type of vehicles entering a site

C) detect external interference

D) measure the number of pedestrians entering a site

34 / 60

34) From the following, what skill can help you during a conflict situation?

A) Negative communication

B) Positive talking

C) Authoritative speech

D) Active listening

35 / 60

35) It is important to check the identification documents of all visitors to:

A) prevent unauthorised access

B) comply with council regulations

C) check the age of everyone entering

D) allow access for statutory agencies

36 / 60

36) Pre-entry checks are carried out on a site before it opens to:

A) comply with council policy

B) comply with building regulations

C) ensure the site is safe

D) ensure the site is clean

37 / 60

37) The main purpose of a final patrol is to:

A) ensure no problems exist for the next officer on duty

B) identify serious problems throughout the shift

C) comply with the supervisor's instructions

D) prevent criminals from predicting when security is present

38 / 60

38) When operating an external automated security barrier, a security officer should ensure that:

A) only emergency vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

B) only one vehicle enters or exits the site when the barrier is raised.

C) only cars enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

D) only staff vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

39 / 60

39) Security officer patrols carried out at the start of the shift are called:

A) general patrols

B) initial patrols

C) primary patrols

D) interim patrols

40 / 60

40) Retail security most likely involves the protection of:

A) businesses

B) management

C) licensed premises

D) government buildings

41 / 60

41) Which of the following are not items of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A) Body-worn cameras

B) Pocketbooks

C) Personal alarms

D) Metal detectors

42 / 60

42) Search records help prove that searches have been carried out:

A) with a search warrant

B) by the police

C) lawfully

D) inappropriately

43 / 60

43) In addition to physical harm, physical interventions are most likely to cause:

A) vehicle accidents

B) marriage problems

C) work-related stress

D) job loss

44 / 60

44) Reflecting on personal safety experiences will most likely:

A) make you safer

B) cause a change in procedures

C) lead to the recruitment of more staff

D) keep supervisors happy

45 / 60

45) Properly maintained protection systems are less likely to:

A) require software updates

B) function correctly

C) require servicing

D) malfunction

46 / 60

46) The most important reason for crime scenes to be preserved is to:

A) make arrests

B) help identify offenders

C) keep the site clean

D) help the ambulance service

47 / 60

47) Which of the following best describes the main responsibility of a security officer?

A) Attracting more clients for the organisation

B) Guarding premises against unauthorised access

C) Preventing waste of the organisation's materials

D) Ensuring the site is monitored 24 hours a day

48 / 60

48) An example of a physical protection system to help prevent article theft is an electronic article surveillance (EAS) device. These are more commonly known as:

A) bugs

B) triggers

C) buzzers

D) tags

49 / 60

49) On activation of a fire alarm, what should a security officer working on access control do?

A) Leave their post and go to the assembly point

B) Open any entry/exit barriers and monitor them

C) Go and look for the area on fire

D) Do nothing until the alarm is confirmed as genuine

50 / 60

50) What are the 2 telephone numbers you can use to call the emergency services on?

A) 100 and 112

B) 999 and 100

C) 999 and 112

D) 999 and 211

51 / 60

51) Snap patrols carried out during a shift are made as the result of a specific what?

A) Request

B) Incident

C) Rumour

D) Complaint

52 / 60

52) If a member of staff refuses to be searched on exit, a security officer should:

A) allow them to exit and take no further action

B) take them to a separate room and search them anyway

C) tell them that it is a breach of their contract and record all details

D) remove their personal property and allow them to leave

53 / 60

53) Body-worn cameras (BWC) are not used to:

A) gather evidence of crimes

B) protects against false allegations

C) identify offenders

D) record incidents for social media

54 / 60

54) If a customer or member of the public sustains a minor injury during a vehicle search, your first action should be to contact:

A) the police

B) the site owner

C) a first-aider

D) your line manager

55 / 60

55) Having a good method of entry control will ensure that:

A) managers can check who is working on the site

B) staff are thoroughly searched when entering

C) visitors' identification is properly checked before entry

D) health and safety risks are recorded

56 / 60

56) While completing patrols, you should stay in contact with:

A) the site owner

B) the control room

C) the health and safety team

D) the police

57 / 60

57) A customer approaches the front door and has enlarged pupils and rapid jaw movement; this is a potential indicator that they are under the influence of:

A) LSD

B) Alcohol

C) Ecstasy

D) Marijuana

58 / 60

58) Keeping your knowledge and skills up to date will most likely:

A) ensure you comply with your contract

B) reduce risks to your personal safety

C) increase the risk to your personal safety

D) decrease your efficiency

59 / 60

59) In all conflict situations, security officers need to carry out ongoing:

A) accident report book

B) risk assessments aggravation assessments

C) injury surveys

D) risk surveys

60 / 60

60) The use of CCTV in search areas will most likely prevent.

A) criminal damage

B) needle-stick injuries

C) malicious allegations

D) drugs contamination

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 3

/50

SO Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Assertiveness

B) Patience

C) Frustration

D) Violence

2 / 50

2) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

B) Showing empathy towards the customer

C) By criticising the actions of the customer

D) Being bossy towards the customer

3 / 50

3) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Ignoring the legal consequences

B) Being rude

C) Fighting back

D) Fear of retaliation

4 / 50

4) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

B) 'I need that bag to make search it.

C) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

D) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search

5 / 50

5) Empathy means being able to:

A) Encourage another person’s perception

B) Ignore someone else's opinion

C) Understand another person’s point of view

D) Share someone else's opinion

6 / 50

6) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

B) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

C) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

D) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

7 / 50

7) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

B) Stand further away from the employee

C) Begin to use abusive personal language

D) Bully at them and tell jokes

8 / 50

8) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

9 / 50

9) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being fearful of the consequences

B) Being disregarded

C) Not providing relevant information

D) Being kept waiting

10 / 50

10) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It minimizes the chances of a risk

B) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

C) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

D) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

11 / 50

11) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Comfortable

B) Нарру

C) Insulted

D) Appreciated

12 / 50

12) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Patronised

C) Assertive

D) Capable

13 / 50

13) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

B) Note down the instructions

C) Develop a rapport with the customer

D) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

14 / 50

14) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) The customer might bring his friends

B) You cannot guarantee victory

C) You might be fired from your workplace

D) For the safety of yourself and others

15 / 50

15) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Different cultures

B) Different eye colour

C) Various clothes

D) Diverse hair colour

16 / 50

16) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Minimal

B) Suitable

C) Reasonable

D) Mandatory

17 / 50

17) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

B) Having strong personal values

C) Being unsure of what action is take

D) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

18 / 50

18) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak quickly

B) Speak calmly

C) Speak aggressively

D) Speak loudly

19 / 50

19) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) To get increase in salary

B) To pick up trends

C) Make a positive impression on your manager

D) To get a promotion

20 / 50

20) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) The customer departing

B) An argument

C) Have your driver's license suspended

D) Loss of your employment

21 / 50

21) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to force their way past the employee

B) Try to talk their way out of the situation

C) Tell the manager

D) Hold until the employee moves

22 / 50

22) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

B) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

C) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

D) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

23 / 50

23) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

B) Their heartbeat decelerates

C) Their hearing tunes into the threat

D) Their thought processes become more logical

24 / 50

24) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Poor communication

B) Concise communication

C) Persuasive communication

D) Effective communication

25 / 50

25) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Victim Support

B) Samaritans

C) Crime Stoppers

D) Child Line

26 / 50

26) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Physical barrier

B) Political barrier

C) Psychological barrier

D) Social barrier

27 / 50

27) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

B) Threaten to call the police

C) Take one to another room to separate them

D) Force to stop an argument

28 / 50

28) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Empathic

B) Compromised

C) A win-win

D) A spin-off

29 / 50

29) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Victim Support Scheme

B) The Local Council

C) The lead security operative

D) The manager

30 / 50

30) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) May get disciplined

B) Will ignore being disciplined

C) might avoid injury

D) Will still do a nice job

31 / 50

31) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

D) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

32 / 50

32) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

B) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

C) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

D) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

33 / 50

33) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The conflict will remain unresolved

C) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

D) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

34 / 50

34) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Approachable

B) Reasonable

C) Mandatory

D) Less

35 / 50

35) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Dodging eye contact

B) only paying partial attention to the other person

C) Facing the other person directly

D) gesturing with open palms

36 / 50

36) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Awareness

B) Assertiveness

C) Frustration

D) Empathy

37 / 50

37) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Being assertive towards the customer

B) Not listening to the customer

C) Advising to the customer

D) Speaking to the customer seriously

38 / 50

38) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

B) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

C) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

D) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

39 / 50

39) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Being assertive

B) Displaying empathy to show you understand to other person

C) Explaining the potential outcomes behaviour continuing

D) Being threatening

40 / 50

40) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

B) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

C) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

D) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

41 / 50

41) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

B) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

C) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

42 / 50

42) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) Any direction given are followed

B) They complain to management

C) The outcome is successful

D) Your opinion is heard

43 / 50

43) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

B) Exert all available force

C) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

D) Kick the customer out without warning

44 / 50

44) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) It empowers the customer to take charge

B) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

C) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

D) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

45 / 50

45) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Rational and social

B) Irrational and emotional

C) Rational and emotional

D) Rational and psychological

46 / 50

46) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

B) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

C) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

D) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

47 / 50

47) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Empowered

C) Motivated

D) Angry

48 / 50

48) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Humiliation

B) Motivation

C) Recognition

D) Stimulus

49 / 50

49) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Shocked

B) Treated like a valued guest

C) Loses face

D) Made to feel welcome

50 / 50

50) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will avoid being disciplined

B) Can ignore injury

C) Will continue to perform well

D) May get disciplined

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

Quick Links

Our Construction Services

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Forms & Submissions

SIA Approved Security Training Courses

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