Security Officer Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 1D
Module 2
Module 3

Module 1A

/100

Module 1A - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1A - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

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1 / 100

1) What is most likely an indicator of suspicious activity?

A) People inquiring about directions

B) People trying to avoid being seen on CCTV

C) Someone clicking photographs of their friends

D) An individual jogging around a structure

2 / 100

2) What is the kind of permanent setup that has pipes with heads that turn on to stop a fire and keep it from spreading?

A) Sprinkler

B) Integrated hose reel

C) Flooding System

D) Riser

3 / 100

3) Non-verbal communication can involve:

A) Facial expression

B) Voicemails

C) Tone of voice

D) Technical language

4 / 100

4) Which of the following is not likely to be completing by a security operative?

A) Training record

B) Search log

C) Sign-in book for visitors

D) Log of keys

5 / 100

5) What is the abbreviation ABH short for?

A) Actual Body Hurt

B) Actual Bodily Harm

C) Actual Bad Hurt

D) Actual Bad Harm

6 / 100

6) If there is a security danger, a security officer should:

A) Maintain organised search procedures

B) Inform the local MP of the security threat

C) Cut back on patrols to allow operatives to focus on other priorities

D) Keep the emergency services updated every hour on the situation

7 / 100

7) What is an instance of a workplace hazard?

A) Closed fire doors

B) Unblocked fire exits

C) Staircase

D) Correctly stored materials

8 / 100

8) If a suspicious package is discovered, the initial response that should be undertaken is to:

A) Contact army bomb disposal officers

B) Inspect it and try to figure out what is inside

C) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

D) the appropriate place for this discussion

9 / 100

9) Which of the following roles is not considered a licensed security role?

A) Event steward

B) Close protection operative

C) Door Supervisor

D) Cash and valuables in transit operative

10 / 100

10) A benefit of good teamwork is that it:

A) Escalate pay

B) Promotes safety

C) Cut down the need for assignment instructions

D) Lowers the requirement for risk assessments

11 / 100

11) The duty of verifying that an area is free from obstructions during a fire alarm lies with:

A) Building’s fire marshal

B) Security officer in charge

C) Local fire and rescue officer

D) Company human resources manager

12 / 100

12) In a crisis, people may get scared and rush toward tight exits. This is likely to lead to:

A) Surging

B) Crushing

C) Shivering

D) Fight or Flight

13 / 100

13) An employee should think about conflicts in order to:

A) Help deal with future incidents more effectively

B) Assess the prosecution risk

C) Determine whether they have chosen the right career

D) Assess the disciplinary risk

14 / 100

14) Upon detecting a fire, the initial step a security operative should take is to:

A) Move away from the fire

B) Start evacuating the premises

C) Stay calm and wait for help to arrive

D) Raise the alarm

15 / 100

15) The key thing in a fire procedure that security staff should be aware of is:

A) How to maintain fire extinguishers in good working order

B) The names of the fire marshals in the building

C) How to ensure that alarms are working properly

D) The location of fire exits and assembly points

16 / 100

16) What are some of the ways that sexual predators may behave?

A) Texting someone

B) Preferring own company

C) Being muscular

D) Closely watching vulnerable people

17 / 100

17) One of the primary motivations for documenting notes during or shortly after an incident is due to:

A) The supervisor must review the incident immediately afterwards

B) It saves colleagues the hassle of writing a report later in the shift

C) It is unlikely that the operator will remember to write a report later

D) The details recorded by the operator are more likely to be accurate

18 / 100

18) The private security industry primarily exists to safeguard:

A) Possessions

B) Boundaries

C) Privacy

D) Life

19 / 100

19) Which of the following is performed on a daily basis?

A) Accident Record

B) Documentation of an incident

C) Lost and found report

D) Handover report

20 / 100

20) What is a critical factor in managing crowd control during an emergency?

A) Shout at customers

B) Stay calm and take charge

C) Use force to move people

D) Do nothing

21 / 100

21) What is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Fight or flight

B) Freeze and surrender

C) Walk calmly away

D) Seek out a crowded place

22 / 100

22) The security operator must write down clear and thorough notes about what happened.

A) When the operator has some extra time

B) At any time as long as it is before the end of the shift

C) Within the next 24 hours

D) At the time or as soon as practicable

23 / 100

23) Assignment instructions give you directions on what to do.

A) That enable security officers to learn about staff

B) For only the managers of a site

C) Regarding insurance

D) On the site’s roles and duties

24 / 100

24) What is a drawback or constraint associated with Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV)?

A) Large camera lens

B) Poor camera coverage

C) Widespread camera monitoring

D) Small camera lens

25 / 100

25) What should you do after a small accident happens at work?

A) An ambulance should always be called

B) An accident book should be completed

C) A certified first aider should always be present

D) Emergency medical supplies should be collected

26 / 100

26) Signs of suspicious activity may be indicated by:

A) A group of people dressed in bizarre clothing

B) A group of men standing outside a railway station late at night

C) People walking around a building watching CCTV camera

D) A social gathering outside a bar

27 / 100

27) The most accurate definition of the threat level 'substantial' is that an attack is:

A) Unlikely

B) Unexpected

C) Likely

D) Assured

28 / 100

28) According to the SIA’s standards for behaviour for security operatives’, a security operative should be:

A) Physically strong

B) Open to working

C) Computer literate

D) Professional

29 / 100

29) To make sure private information stays safe, a security worker needs to:

A) Maintain confidentiality

B) Publish work-related information on social media

C) Talk to your family about work-related problems

D) Talk about work-related topics in a place where others can hear you

30 / 100

30) The 1974 Health and Safety at Work Act is for:

A) Both employers and employees

B) Employers only

C) Employees only

D) Companies only

31 / 100

31) Among these options, what is not a good enough reason to arrest someone?

A) Causing injury to themselves

B) Destroying property

C) Causing injury to other

D) Refusing a search

32 / 100

32) If a security operative is made aware of a vulnerable female following a domestic argument, the most appropriate action to take is to contact:

A) The local police station

B) The local office of the Samaritans

C) St John Ambulance

D) The local council

33 / 100

33) A security officer who is making an arrest is using the authority described in:

A) A common law

B) Personal safety law

C) Data protection law

D) Health and safety law

34 / 100

34) A danger of working alone in the private security field is:

A) Maintaining regular communication with the supervisor

B) Having CCTV as a backup plan in case of other security measures failing

C) Teamwork challenges

D) Being isolated and having to rely on technology for back up

35 / 100

35) Which of the following is a non-criminal case?

A) Fraud

B) Robery

C) Trespass

D) Theft

36 / 100

36) A fire involving burning petrol would be categorized as what type of fire?

A) Class C

B) Class A

C) Class D

D) Class B

37 / 100

37) What element from the following can be eliminated to disrupt the fire triangle?

A) Fuel

B) Smoke

C) Foam

D) Powder

38 / 100

38) Seeking assistance and support in the aftermath of an incident is essential

A) Is necessity of health and safety

B) Is mandated by employment law

C) Reduces the chances of developing emotional problems

D) Enable the likelihood of mental health issues

39 / 100

39) Which of the following is the best definition of an ‘occurrence’?

A) Something that may happen

B) Something that has happened

C) Chance of happening something

D) Risk of something happening

40 / 100

40) A case of verbal communication can be exemplified by:

A) Voicemail message

B) Textual message on cellular phone

C) Electronic message sent in Morse code

D) Log-book entry

41 / 100

41) When someone with disabilities asks for help, it's important to follow the company rules because:

A) They are a customer needing assistance

B) You may be reported if you do not

C) You may be being watched

D) They may be testing my customer service skills

42 / 100

42) For a security operative, the most appropriate interpretation of the term 'run, hide, and tell' is to evacuate:

A) The attackers, leaving all others behind

B) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

C) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

D) Others from the danger, while staying behind

43 / 100

43) Which of these things would be considered an urgent situation?

A) Ankle sprain

B) Sunstroke

C) Crushed finger

D) Heart attack

44 / 100

44) What is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It never captures sensitive information

B) It automatically restricts footage access for certain individuals

C) It is accessible to the general public at any time

D) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

45 / 100

45) An indicator of possible abuse is:

A) Assertiveness

B) Assurance

C) Insecurity

D) Arrogance

46 / 100

46) Which of the following is an outcome of equal opportunities legislation in the workplace?

A) Fewer opportunities for men

B) Increased pay for men

C) Standardised pay scales

D) Shorter work hours for women

47 / 100

47) A workplace danger is probably:

A) Un heatedness

B) A dangerous substance

C) Air cooling

D) Vivid lighting

48 / 100

48) Following involvement in a violent incident, it would be most advantageous for a staff member to seek support by:

A) Sending a letter to the local MP

B) Celebrating with friends

C) Talking through the incident with colleagues

D) Posting details of the incident on social media

49 / 100

49) The primary job of the Security Industry Authority (SIA) is to:

A) Uphold the law and protect the public in the absence of police

B) License some roles within the private security industry

C) Manage business owner's conduct

D) Regulate local taxi drivers by licensing

50 / 100

50) After someone is arrested, the proof should be:

A) In proportion

B) Devastated

C) Sanitized

D) Preserved

51 / 100

51) During a security alert, a security operative may be required to:

A) Arrange for trained first – aid staff to be available

B) Tell to the local council

C) Notify the fire and ambulance service that they may be needed soon

D) Increase high-visibility patrols

52 / 100

52) Security operatives must look after vulnerable people in order to:

A) Save their employer’s reputation

B) Stop them from being arrested

C) Stop the police from coming to the premises

D) Prevent them from becoming victims of crime

53 / 100

53) When there's an urgent situation, some individuals might not want to go. This is known as:

A) Denial

B) Surging

C) Flight

D) Freezing

54 / 100

54) What is the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

B) To submit complaints against security personnel

C) To report lost goods to law enforcement

D) To submit customer service suggestions

55 / 100

55) As per the behavioral standards established by the Security Industry Authority (SIA), a security operative is required to:

A) Be physically strong

B) Wear comfortable clothes

C) Be laid-back

D) Use moderate language

56 / 100

56) Why should we only make an arrest when there's no other option left?

A) Because the police officers tend to prefer making arrests themselves

B) Because the manager of the premises would have to ensure the safety and security of the detained person

C) Because the personal safety of a security operative can be put at risk

D) Because the security operative would have to complete an incident report

57 / 100

57) When you go to court to share information, the most vital thing is that you are:

A) Prepared

B) Wearing clothes appropriately

C) Polite

D) On-time

58 / 100

58) The most likely consequence of invacuation is that:

A) There are limited escape routes

B) People are placed directly in risk

C) There is a physical barrier between you and the threat

D) The area is protected

59 / 100

59) What is the preferred ink color for record keeping?

A) Red

B) Black

C) Green

D) Blue

60 / 100

60) What are the key things to keep in mind when dealing with customer needs?

A) We should not talk to customers

B) Make a good first impression

C) Try and impress the customers who are better looking

D) Customers are always wrong

61 / 100

61) A key objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Provide detailed information on staff pay and condition

B) To regulate the private security industry, reduce crime and raise standards within the industry

C) Stop police involvement in all security matters

D) Allow security companies to tender for public contracts

62 / 100

62) It is important for an employee to discuss with colleagues how an incident was successfully resolved as:

A) The employee can know their colleagues’ lack of experience

B) It allows colleagues to learn from an example of best practice

C) It enables the employee to finish the written report

D) It prohibits the employer from criticizing the incident response

63 / 100

63) What are the three factors of the fire triangle?

A) Heat, Oxygen, Fire

B) Harmful, Fire, Oxygen

C) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen

D) Heat, Food, Oxygen

64 / 100

64) If a suspicious package is discovered, the first action that should be taken is to:

A) Another location

B) Contact army bomb disposal officers

C) Investigate it to see what's inside

D) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

65 / 100

65) Somebody shrugging their shoulders is an example of:

A) Oral communication

B) Verbal communication

C) Written communication

D) Non-verbal communication

66 / 100

66) The goal of assignment instructions is to offer:

A) Insurance policy information

B) Staff details

C) Guidelines for site managers only

D) Guidelines about site duties and roles

67 / 100

67) What is the meaning of the word "theft"?

A) Threatening to take something from someone

B) Stealing using Force

C) Stealing something to later return it

D) Taking something without consent with no intention of returning it

68 / 100

68) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Online gaming forums

B) Colleagues and management

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Social media platforms

69 / 100

69) Which of the following behaviours is most likely to indicate a sexual predator?

A) A heavily intoxicated person leaving with s sober person.

B) A drunk person leaving with a group of intoxicated people.

C) A solo performer on the dance floor

D) A person stumbling and staggering around the venue

70 / 100

70) Which of the following is an approach that does not contribute to keeping personal information secure?"

A) Following the rules and regulations of the organization

B) Keeping information secret

C) Discussing work issues outside the workplace

D) Meeting the legal obligations of data protection legislation

71 / 100

71) What color shade of a sign indicate safe conditions?

A) Green

B) Red

C) Yellow

D) Blue

72 / 100

72) What is the initial step in creating a 5-part statement?

A) Close the statement

B) Set the scene

C) Chronological account

D) Introduction

73 / 100

73) The probability of a fire occurring is likely decreased by:

A) Having good housekeeping practices

B) Getting appliances inspected every few years

C) Keeping waste close to public spaces

D) Implementing a comprehensive recycling system

74 / 100

74) Which of the following is a guiding principle of the Data Protection Act 2018?

A) Personal data shall be used for marketing purposes

B) Personal date shall not be kept for longer than is necessary

C) Personal data shall be freely transferred abroad

D) Personal data shall be subject to unlimited processing

75 / 100

75) The most important explanation of 'run, hide, and tell' for a security worker is to get away.

A) Shielding others from danger, while remaining behind

B) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

C) The aggressors retreating, deserting everyone else

D) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

76 / 100

76) The best thing about communicating well while taking care of customers is that it:

A) Ensure compliance by aggressors

B) Reduces incidents of conflict

C) Makes the other person's life easier

D) Ensures all problems are solved

77 / 100

77) One goal of the Private Security Industry Act is to:

A) Raise standards within the security industry

B) Improve conviction rates in the security industry

C) Make sure security guards are first-aid certified

D) Provide a means of hiring security operatives

78 / 100

78) What is the first action that a security operative should take upon discovering a fire?

A) Raise the alarm!

B) Tackle the fire with the appropriate extinguisher

C) Open all doors and windows

D) Call the emergency services

79 / 100

79) From the following, the best method of deterring anti – social behaviour is to carry out:

A) Covert patrols

B) Patrols at the same time every day

C) High-profile patrols

D) Lockdown patrols

80 / 100

80) What does the term "arrest" mean?

A) To question someone about a crime

B) To take away someone's freedom

C) To inform someone of their rights

D) To escort someone to safety

81 / 100

81) The right way to make an arrest is to:

A) Detain the individual, call the police and explain the reason for the arrest.

B) Detain the individual, explain the reason for the arrest and call the police

C) Contact the police, detain the individual and explain the reason for the arrest

D) Explain the reason for the arrest, detain the individual and call the police

82 / 100

82) What is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Increased competition among colleagues

B) Reduced need for security staff

C) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

D) Increased individual recognition

83 / 100

83) What are the risks faced by working alone?

A) Becoming bored

B) Nothing

C) Injuries/Illness that may require medical attention

D) Feeling Drowsy

84 / 100

84) The aim of establishing effective evacuation procedures is to:

A) Ensure that the fire service can easily access the venue

B) Ensure everyone goes to the same fire assembly point

C) Help to ensure the safety of yourself and others

D) Optimize fire marshals' search time

85 / 100

85) A job done by a fire marshal is:

A) Checking that fire doors are unobstructed

B) Enabling people to exit the building in the event of a fire

C) Ensure that fire extinguishers are replenished when necessary

D) Counting all staff entering the building

86 / 100

86) Which of the following is an element that does not pose a risk in the context of working alone?

A) Lack of communication

B) Lack of support

C) Lack of welfare facilities

D) Lack of conversation

87 / 100

87) One of the guiding principles of providing excellent customer service is to:

A) Create a rapport with the customer as soon as possible

B) Always consider the organization's perspective

C) Instruct the customer to follow the prescribed steps

D) Always question the customer’s viewpoint

88 / 100

88) Who should a security officer call first for a small first-aid problem?

A) The health and safety manager

B) NHS Direct

C) A qualified first-aider

D) The supervisor

89 / 100

89) What are the three things needed for a fire to happen?

A) A heat source, paper and wood.

B) Oxygen, Fuel and a heat source

C) A heat source, air and oxygen

D) Air, Oxygen and fuel

90 / 100

90) If something is proven to be suspicious, a security worker must:

A) Photograph the suspicious object for the disposal experts

B) Do not leave your position until the emergency services arrive

C) Do not move until the bomb squad arrive

D) Evacuate using the safety exit

91 / 100

91) If someone requires treatment for a minor injury, a security operative should first contact:

A) A first-aider

B) A paramedic

C) A doctor

D) Their supervisor

92 / 100

92) A main objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

B) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

C) Eliminate criminal elements from the industry

D) Decrease the number of security personnel in the industry

93 / 100

93) According to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, all premises should be:

A) Inspected for damp every 3 months

B) Secure and protected

C) Clean and safe

D) Checked for noise pollution every 6 months

94 / 100

94) Marauding terror attacks include the use of:

A) Improvised explosive devices

B) Chemicals

C) Vehicles as a weapon

D) Firearms

95 / 100

95) What kind of arrest can a security worker perform?

A) Police take into custody

B) Taking into custody with a warrant

C) Security industry arrest

D) Citizen’s arrest

96 / 100

96) If someone is lying on the ground and looks like they touched an electrical cable while unconscious, the first thing to do is:

A) Turn off the power

B) Shake them hard

C) Start first-aid treatment immediately

D) Drape a blanket over them to keep them warm

97 / 100

97) What are the reasons for security operatives having a clear understanding of fire evacuation procedures?

A) To help them to judge whether the evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly

B) So that they can provide effective assistance in the event of an emergency

C) To enable them to re-enter the premises to search for anyone who is missing

D) To allow them to be the first to reach the assembly point and take a roll call

98 / 100

98) Prohibition signs are:

A) Green and white

B) Red and white

C) Blue and white

D) Yellow and black

99 / 100

99) What is the full form of AI?

A) Assignment Instructions

B) Argument Incitement

C) Artificial Intel

D) Augmented Intelligence

100 / 100

100) A situation that is right away dangerous to life or property is called:

A) A danger

B) A close call

C) An occurrence

D) An emergency

Your score is

The average score is 73%

Module 1B

/100

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

B) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

C) To avoid complaints from individuals

D) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

2 / 100

2) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Sending a text message

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Writing a polite email

3 / 100

3) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears disoriented

4 / 100

4) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking action

B) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

5 / 100

5) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

6 / 100

6) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

7 / 100

7) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To avoid working extra hours

B) To comply with legal requirements

C) To make personal notes about customers

D) To improve the reputation of the venue

8 / 100

8) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

B) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

9 / 100

9) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

B) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

C) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

D) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

10 / 100

10) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

B) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

C) Common illnesses among employees

D) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

11 / 100

11) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Planning out the route to the venue

B) Reviewing old criminal offenses

C) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

D) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

12 / 100

12) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

B) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

C) To avoid contact with any key personnel

D) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

13 / 100

13) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Directly confront the individual

B) Contact the transport's customer service team

C) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

D) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

14 / 100

14) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

B) Regulating the security industry through licensing

C) Training security staff for private companies

D) Offering financial support to security contractors

15 / 100

15) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

B) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Report the injury to their employer

16 / 100

16) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Directing security to a distressed individual

B) Taking part in group activities with friends

C) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

D) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

17 / 100

17) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

B) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

C) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

D) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

18 / 100

18) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

B) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

C) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

D) Something that might cause occasional distractions

19 / 100

19) What does the term "arrest" generally mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To escort someone to safety

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To take away someone's liberty

20 / 100

20) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

B) Photograph it and then throw it away

C) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

D) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

21 / 100

21) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Activate the fire alarm

B) Immediately evacuate the building

C) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

D) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

22 / 100

22) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Preventing interactions with the public

B) Conducting highly visible patrols

C) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

D) Ignoring minor incidents

23 / 100

23) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

B) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

C) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

D) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

24 / 100

24) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) A noise complaint

B) Parking offenses

C) Littering

D) An assault

25 / 100

25) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Consistent injuries

B) Changes in behavior

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Positive self-esteem

26 / 100

26) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break durations

B) Documenting found items

C) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

27 / 100

27) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

B) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

C) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

D) To show authority and control over the situation

28 / 100

28) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

29 / 100

29) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

D) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

30 / 100

30) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Adding more heat

B) Removing the fuel

C) Adding more oxygen

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

31 / 100

31) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Having a discussion with a family member

B) Taking pictures of a tourist group

C) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

D) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

32 / 100

32) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Online gaming communities

B) Entertainment websites and apps

C) Social media platforms

D) Colleagues and management

33 / 100

33) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When interacting with hostile customers

B) When discussing personal matters outside of work

C) When arranging office furniture

D) When scheduling breaks for security staff

34 / 100

34) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) Requirement to attend additional training

C) Verbal warning from their employer

D) Temporary suspension from their job

35 / 100

35) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Hosting private social events for the community

B) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

C) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

D) Increasing entry fees to control access

36 / 100

36) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Employee social gatherings outside work

D) Dress code policies

37 / 100

37) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

B) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

C) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

D) To avoid supporting each individual customer

38 / 100

38) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It increases individual recognition

B) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

C) It leads to more competition among staff

D) It means fewer security staff are needed

39 / 100

39) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

B) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

C) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

D) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

40 / 100

40) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

B) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

C) To provide contact details for medical services

D) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

41 / 100

41) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

42 / 100

42) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking in an aggressive tone

B) Being confrontational

C) Writing down instructions

D) Speaking calmly

43 / 100

43) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

D) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

44 / 100

44) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Enhanced team dynamics

B) Developing negative coping mechanisms

C) Increased motivation to perform better

D) Optimized focus on work projects

45 / 100

45) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

B) Engaging the person with professional customer service

C) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

D) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

46 / 100

46) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

B) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

C) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

D) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

47 / 100

47) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Writing down passwords in a notebook

D) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

48 / 100

48) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

B) Giving the customer all of the information at once

C) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

D) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

49 / 100

49) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

B) Alert the appropriate emergency services

C) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

D) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

50 / 100

50) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

B) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

C) To gather information about the offense

D) To ensure property is not damaged

51 / 100

51) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to contact emergency services

B) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

C) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

D) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

52 / 100

52) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Reducing opportunities for crimes

B) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

C) Limiting communication between security teams

D) Promoting competition among local businesses

53 / 100

53) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Depriving someone of their freedom

B) Informing someone of their legal rights

C) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

D) Guiding someone to a safe place

54 / 100

54) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

B) The state brings the cases against individuals

C) Local councils handle all the cases

D) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

55 / 100

55) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is optional for all security companies

B) Licensing is only required for large security firms

C) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

D) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

56 / 100

56) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

B) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

C) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

D) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

57 / 100

57) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Might be conducting suspicious activities

B) Are an employee running late for a meeting

C) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

D) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

58 / 100

58) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

B) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

C) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

D) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

59 / 100

59) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

B) To avoid potential liability for future issues

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

60 / 100

60) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

B) Providing legal representation to businesses

C) Managing public relations for private companies

D) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

61 / 100

61) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

B) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

D) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

62 / 100

62) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

B) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

D) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

63 / 100

63) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A team member needing assistance with a report

B) A colleague asking for help with a task

C) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

D) A manager requesting information

64 / 100

64) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Reading a text message aloud

B) Speaking clearly to someone

C) Making a phone call

D) Using hand gestures

65 / 100

65) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To limit employee movement around the premises

B) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To estimate costs for safety equipment

66 / 100

66) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

B) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

C) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

D) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

67 / 100

67) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

B) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

C) It never captures sensitive information

D) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

68 / 100

68) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Have no special powers of arrest

B) Can detain individuals until they confess

C) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

D) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

69 / 100

69) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being confident and energetic

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Having a clear sense of direction

70 / 100

70) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) A duty sheet

B) A visitor log

C) An accident report

D) A search register

71 / 100

71) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is unlikely but still possible

B) When it is highly improbable

C) When it is almost certain to happen

D) When it is possible but not likely

72 / 100

72) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

B) Guarantee low prices for security services

C) Promote high standards within the industry

D) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

73 / 100

73) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Removing them from the premises

B) Clear and concise communication

C) Providing immediate medical attention

D) Offering physical assistance

74 / 100

74) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) State the total number of visitors

B) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

C) List the names of staff present

D) Recount only the parts that seem important

75 / 100

75) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is likely

B) An attack is highly likely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is possible but unlikely

76 / 100

76) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Providing first aid to injured staff

B) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

C) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

D) Training employees in fire safety procedures

77 / 100

77) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

D) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

78 / 100

78) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

B) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

D) Call their superior before taking any actions

79 / 100

79) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

B) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

C) A package left unattended

D) A colleague having an asthma attack

80 / 100

80) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

C) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

D) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

81 / 100

81) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Ignore their complaints directly

B) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

C) Deny there's any problem

D) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

82 / 100

82) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

B) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

C) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

83 / 100

83) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To submit complaints against security personnel

B) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

C) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

D) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

84 / 100

84) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Aggression

B) Integrity

C) Indifference

D) Dishonesty

85 / 100

85) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of first aid kits

D) The location of fire exits

86 / 100

86) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

B) To make the communication sound more complex

C) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

D) To add a formal tone to the conversation

87 / 100

87) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

B) Increased exposure to potential violence

C) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

D) Reduced access to basic health support

88 / 100

88) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

B) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

89 / 100

89) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) A notice posted on a door

B) Listening to a colleague's opinion

C) A security operative speaking to a customer

D) A facial expression showing confusion

90 / 100

90) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely overlook the incident and move on

B) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

C) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

D) To review an incident but take no reflective action

91 / 100

91) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Instructions from colleagues

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) SIA standards and the company's established values

D) Personal preferences for handling situations

92 / 100

92) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual accountability

B) It encourages competition among colleagues

C) It promotes communication and collaboration

D) It enables individuals to work independently

93 / 100

93) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Shared on social media for public awareness

B) Deleted after one month

C) Accessed only by authorized personnel

D) Reviewed by any staff member

94 / 100

94) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

D) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

95 / 100

95) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) An individual stealing sensitive information

B) Use of firearms

C) Release of dangerous substances

D) Hacking into a company's computer systems

96 / 100

96) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Calmly walking away

B) Freezing and surrendering

C) Searching for a crowded area

D) Fight or flight

97 / 100

97) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) A slip on a wet floor

B) A heart attack

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A software update on a laptop

98 / 100

98) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

B) May result in increased stress for the security operative

C) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

D) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

99 / 100

99) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Customer support agent

B) Maintenance person

C) Personal trainer

D) Vehicle immobilizer

100 / 100

100) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

B) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

C) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

D) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1C

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 92

1) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of first aid kits

B) The location of fire exits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of hazardous materials

2 / 92

2) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire blanket

B) Sprinkler system

C) Water

D) Fire hose

3 / 92

3) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

B) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

C) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

D) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

4 / 92

4) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

B) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

C) Inform a manager and record the incident.

D) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

5 / 92

5) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving hot cooking oils

B) A fire involving petrol or paint

C) A fire involving butane gas

D) A fire involving wood or rubber

6 / 92

6) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Try to administer first aid without training

B) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

C) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

D) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

7 / 92

7) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

B) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

C) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

8 / 92

8) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Closely observing and tracking individuals

B) Engaging in group activities with friends

C) Guiding security towards a distressed person

D) Offering aid to people in distress

9 / 92

9) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Sending a text message

B) Using hand signals to direct someone

C) Smiling or frowning

D) Writing a polite email

10 / 92

10) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

B) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

C) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

D) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

11 / 92

11) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) Samaritans

B) Trade unions

C) Advice Citizens Bureau

D) The local community center

12 / 92

12) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

B) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

C) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

D) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

13 / 92

13) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to call emergency services

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It eliminates the need for other security measures

14 / 92

14) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Have no special powers of arrest

C) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

D) Can detain individuals until they confess

15 / 92

15) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

B) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

C) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

D) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

16 / 92

16) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Personal preferences in handling situations

B) SIA standards and the company's values

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Customer wishes and demands

17 / 92

17) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) New opportunities for equipment

B) Good team-building activities

C) Effective practices

D) Financial bonuses

18 / 92

18) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) The approved contractor scheme

B) Recruiting new security officers

C) Offering discounts to security companies

D) A security benefits scheme for employees

19 / 92

19) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Proceed to question the individual

B) Detain the individual

C) Escort the individual off the premises

D) Immediately search the individual

20 / 92

20) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

C) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

D) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

21 / 92

21) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Requesting assistance from the police

B) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

C) Booking a taxi for the individual

D) Using local support organizations

22 / 92

22) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

B) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

C) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

D) A child playing outdoors with friends

23 / 92

23) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) List the names of all staff present

B) State the total number of visitors

C) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

D) Recount only the seemingly important parts

24 / 92

24) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Increasing entry fees for access control

B) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

C) Organizing private gatherings within the community

D) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

25 / 92

25) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Only report it if a crime occurs

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Call the transport's customer service team

D) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

26 / 92

26) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It fosters communication and cooperation

B) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

C) It increases individual responsibility

D) It allows individuals to work in isolation

27 / 92

27) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Highly improbable

B) Nearly certain

C) Possible but unlikely

D) Unlikely but conceivable

28 / 92

28) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

B) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

C) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

D) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

29 / 92

29) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To avoid any staff interactions

B) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

C) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

D) To reduce security visibility to the public

30 / 92

30) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

C) To question the suspect about the offense

D) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

31 / 92

31) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

B) To inform the media about the arrest

C) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

D) To immediately leave the scene

32 / 92

32) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

B) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

C) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

D) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

33 / 92

33) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for issues

B) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

C) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

D) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

34 / 92

34) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Compensation and employee benefits

B) Allocation of lunch breaks

C) Access to company resources

D) Participation in team-building activities

35 / 92

35) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

36 / 92

36) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

B) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

C) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

D) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

37 / 92

37) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Sound the alarm

B) Evacuate the building immediately

C) Check the fire extinguishers

D) Help vulnerable people evacuate

38 / 92

38) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Stop and search for the fire's source

B) Sound the alarm

C) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

D) Evacuate the building immediately

39 / 92

39) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A manager requesting information

B) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

C) A colleague seeking help with a task

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

40 / 92

40) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Contacting emergency services.

B) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

C) Investigating the cause before taking action.

D) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

41 / 92

41) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Private individuals initiate cases in court

B) Local councils manage all cases

C) The state brings charges against individuals

D) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

42 / 92

42) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When planning breaks for security staff

B) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

C) When managing office furniture layout

D) When dealing with aggressive customers

43 / 92

43) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

B) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

C) It prevents involvement from local authorities

D) It ensures no one will challenge actions

44 / 92

44) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) People freezing in place due to shock

C) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

D) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

45 / 92

45) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Limited access to basic health support.

B) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

C) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

D) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

46 / 92

46) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

B) The release of hazardous substances.

C) Theft of sensitive information.

D) The use of firearms.

47 / 92

47) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Work-related personal projects

B) Employee social gatherings outside of work

C) Potential promotions within the company

D) Dress code policies

48 / 92

48) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

B) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

49 / 92

49) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

B) Assisting a lost individual

C) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

D) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

50 / 92

50) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

B) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

C) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

51 / 92

51) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

B) Denying that there is any issue

C) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

D) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

52 / 92

52) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

B) To help them avoid discussing the incident

C) To review an incident without taking reflective action

D) To completely disregard the incident and move on

53 / 92

53) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Being argumentative.

B) Providing written instructions.

C) Speaking in a calm manner.

D) Using an aggressive tone.

54 / 92

54) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Civil or criminal prosecution

B) A verbal warning from their employer

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Temporary suspension from their job

55 / 92

55) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 300 meters.

B) Approximately 200 meters.

C) Approximately 400 meters.

D) Approximately 100 meters.

56 / 92

56) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

B) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

C) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

D) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

57 / 92

57) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

B) Water, heat, and oxygen

C) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

D) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

58 / 92

58) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

C) An individual who appears disoriented

D) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

59 / 92

59) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

C) Documenting visitor logs

D) Recording shift instructions and break times

60 / 92

60) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Accessible only by authorized personnel

B) Shared on social media for awareness

C) Reviewed by any staff member

D) Deleted after one month

61 / 92

61) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

B) Separate the victim from the attacker

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

D) Notify the victim's family before taking action

62 / 92

62) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A fire

B) A water leak

C) A power outage

D) A gas leak

63 / 92

63) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Clear

B) Conclusion

C) Control

D) Confirm

64 / 92

64) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) CO2 Gas

B) Foam

C) Wet chemical

D) Water

65 / 92

65) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

B) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

C) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

D) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

66 / 92

66) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

B) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

C) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

D) Asking security staff for directions

67 / 92

67) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

B) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

C) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

D) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

68 / 92

68) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class F

B) Class D

C) Class A

D) Class B

69 / 92

69) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Photographed and then discarded

B) Disposed of and logged

C) Preserved and handed over to the police

D) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

70 / 92

70) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

B) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

C) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

D) Cases of common colds among employees

71 / 92

71) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

B) It increases risks for both staff and the public

C) It reduces the need for training and oversight

D) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

72 / 92

72) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Ensuring security personnel leave first

B) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Blocking access to all staircases

73 / 92

73) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

B) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

C) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

74 / 92

74) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

B) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

C) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

D) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

75 / 92

75) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

B) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

C) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

D) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

76 / 92

76) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Wait until the last minute to arrive

B) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

C) Review their statement and the relevant case details

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

77 / 92

77) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

B) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

C) What they observed and their names

D) Any previous self-protection training they had

78 / 92

78) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Preventing interactions with the public

B) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

C) High-visibility patrols

D) Ignoring minor incidents

79 / 92

79) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

C) Inform a manager and log the incident

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

80 / 92

80) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

B) It can only be used indoors

C) It cannot record any criminal activities

D) It can only be used outdoors

81 / 92

81) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

B) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

C) Reducing communication between team members

D) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

82 / 92

82) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

B) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

C) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

D) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

83 / 92

83) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Delivery driver

B) Manned Guarding

C) Private investigator

D) Office receptionist

84 / 92

84) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Improving team morale

B) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

C) Preparing to use physical restraints

D) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

85 / 92

85) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

B) A blue square with a cross

C) A red circle with a line through it

D) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

86 / 92

86) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A heart attack

B) A slip on a wet floor

C) A software update on a laptop

D) An epileptic seizure

87 / 92

87) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Assault

B) Burglary

C) Breach of contract

D) Murder

88 / 92

88) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

89 / 92

89) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Managing public relations for private companies

90 / 92

90) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

B) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

C) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

D) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

91 / 92

91) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To avoid attending required safety training.

B) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

C) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

D) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

92 / 92

92) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1D

/72

SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI

Principles of Working in the Private Security Industry -MCQ

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 72

1) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) A dangerous occurrence even if nobody was injured

B) Cases of common colds among employees

C) Cases of accidental slips that result in minor bruises

D) A dangerous occurrence only if somebody was injured

2 / 72

2) Which of the following is a key component of an emergency plan?

A) A map of the local area's restaurants and shops

B) An evacuation procedure, including assembly points

C) A detailed list of all staff personal contact numbers

D) A schedule for the next week's security patrols

3 / 72

3) Which of the following is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

B) Increased individual recognition

C) Increased competition among colleagues

D) Reduced number of security staff needed

4 / 72

4) The alarm sounds and smoke is seen coming from a nearby room, which of the following emergencies is likely occurring?

A) Fire

B) Gas leak

C) Water leak

D) Power failure

5 / 72

5) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A software update on a laptop

B) A heart attack

C) A slip on a wet floor

D) An epileptic seizure

6 / 72

6) How does accurate record-keeping help in a legal situation?

A) It ensures a favourable outcome in court

B) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

7 / 72

7) Which of the following behaviours suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual who appears unsure of their surroundings

B) An individual consistently entering restricted areas

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

8 / 72

8) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can effectively improve security for security operatives?

A) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

B) Organising private gatherings within the community

C) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

D) Increasing the use of entry fees for access control

9 / 72

9) When interacting with a police officer, a security operative must always:

A) offer personal opinions on the legal matter

B) demand the police officer show their identification immediately

C) refuse to hand over any evidence

D) allow the police officer to take control of the situation

10 / 72

10) Which of the following describes necessary force?

A) Force that is used when other options have been exhausted

B) Force that is allowed if it results in a positive outcome

C) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgement

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

11 / 72

11) What do the terms run, hide and tell signify to a security operative in the event of a terror threat?

A) Run to safety, hide if necessary and tell the authorities about the situation

B) Run far from the threat, hide away and tell the authorities about the situation

C) Run home, hide from the threat and tell others on social media

D) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment and tell the media

12 / 72

12) Upon discovering a fire, what is the first action that must be taken?

A) Start a search for the source of the fire

B) Sound the alarm

C) Wait for the fire to burn out

D) Evacuate the building immediately

13 / 72

13) A main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

B) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) Remove any criminal elements from the industry

D) Increase the number of security personnel in the industry

14 / 72

14) Which of the following is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) Raising performance standards within the private security industry

B) Allowing security companies to operate without regulation

C) Limiting the number of security contractors in the market

D) Reducing the need for customer service in security roles

15 / 72

15) Which of the following is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It promotes communication and collaboration

B) It enables individuals to work independently

C) It encourages competition amongst colleagues

D) It increases individual accountability

16 / 72

16) Which of the following must be done when a security operative is preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review their statement and the significant case details

B) Look at as little information as possible and make no preparations

C) Wait until the last minute to arrive

D) Avoid communication with their legal representative

17 / 72

17) When making arrests, security operatives:

A) can arrest anyone suspected of any offence

B) have the same powers of arrest as police officers

C) can detain individuals until they confess

D) have no special powers of arrest

18 / 72

18) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It is accessible to the general public at any time

B) It never captures sensitive information

C) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It may prevent certain individuals from accessing footage

19 / 72

19) What is the second step to take when making a citizen's arrest?

A) Contact the police

B) Proceed to question the individual

C) Detain the individual

D) Immediately perform a search

20 / 72

20) Which of the following is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting visitor logs

B) Recording shift instructions and length of break times

C) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

D) Documenting found items

21 / 72

21) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To overlook the incident completely and move on

B) To look back on an incident but take no reflective action

C) To aid them in avoiding discussions on the incident

D) To assess any actions and to reflect on an incident

22 / 72

22) To maintain a safe environment, security operatives should inspect their equipment (e.g., radios, torches) to ensure they are:

A) used only by one person during a shift

B) fully functional and correctly maintained

C) easily concealable from the public

D) the latest model on the market

23 / 72

23) What firefighting equipment must be used for small kitchen fires, like a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire blanket

B) Sprinkler system

C) Water

D) Fire hose

24 / 72

24) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) preserved and handed to the police

B) photographed and then discarded

C) kept confidential and withheld from the police

D) disposed of and noted in a written logbook

25 / 72

25) Which of the following describes the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To submit criticism against security personnel

B) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

C) To submit suggestions regarding customer service

D) To report lost goods to Law Enforcement

26 / 72

26) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

B) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Always arriving on time and being well presented

D) Displaying a lack of confidence and insecurity

27 / 72

27) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

B) A manager requesting information

C) A colleague asking for help with a task

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

28 / 72

28) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

B) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near the electrical equipment

C) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place away from ignition sources

D) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

29 / 72

29) Which of the following is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Fight or flight

B) Seek out a crowded place

C) Freeze and surrender

D) Walk calmly away

30 / 72

30) Which of the following is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorised activities

B) Managing public relations for private companies

C) Providing legal representation to businesses

D) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

31 / 72

31) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking calmly

B) Speaking in a aggressive tone

C) Writing down instructions

D) Being confrontational

32 / 72

32) When dealing with an upset customer, which of the following actions helps resolve the situation?

A) Put yourself in the customers position and accept responsibility

B) Deny that there is any issue at all

C) Avoid directly acknowledging their concerns

D) Tell the customer to come back later when they are less upset

33 / 72

33) What elements must be present for a fire to exist?

A) Heat, carbon dioxide and water

B) Oxygen, fuel and heat

C) Water, heat and oxygen

D) Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide

34 / 72

34) What should a security operative do if they see an individual acting suspiciously and taking photographs of a restricted area?

A) Ignore the behaviour unless they see a crime being committed

B) Confront the individual immediately and demand they delete the pictures

C) Immediately challenge them to prove their identity

D) Report the activity to the control room or management

35 / 72

35) Which of the following is a key element in deterring anti-social behaviour?

A) High-profile patrols

B) Neglecting minor incidents

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

36 / 72

36) Which of the following is an example of an internal customer for a security company working at a venue?

A) A member of the public attending an event

B) A window cleaner contracted by the venue

C) An employee of the venue

D) A delivery driver making a drop-off

37 / 72

37) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Work-related personal projects

C) Employee social gatherings outside work

D) Dress code policies

38 / 72

38) What is the primary reason for a security operative to wear high-visibility clothing while on patrol?

A) To clearly identify them as an emergency service worker

B) To make their presence known and act as a deterrent

C) To reflect the uniform of local police services

D) To keep warm during cold weather

39 / 72

39) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To prevent the suspect from causing injury to themselves

C) To question the suspect about the offence

D) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

40 / 72

40) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

B) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

C) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

D) Escalate immediately to the highest authority

41 / 72

41) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Training security staff for private companies

B) Offering financial support to security contractors

C) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

D) Regulating the security industry through licensing

42 / 72

42) Which of the following is the correct way to explain how an incident unravelled in a report?

A) Describe the different stages leading up to it

B) Recount only the parts that seem important

C) State the total number of visitors

D) List the names of staff present

43 / 72

43) Which classification of fire involves materials such as paper, wood and textiles?

A) Class D

B) Class B

C) Class A

D) Class F

44 / 72

44) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To follow legal requirements and document an incident

B) To avoid potential liability for any future issues

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

45 / 72

45) Which of the following is an appropriate response when witnessing suspicious behaviour on public transport?

A) Call the transport's customer service team

B) Confront the individual directly

C) Only report it if a crime takes place

D) Use the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

46 / 72

46) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Online gaming forums

B) Social media platforms

C) Entertainment websites and apps

D) Colleagues and management

47 / 72

47) Which of the following must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Separate the victim from the attacker

B) Notify the victim's family before taking any action

C) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

D) Allow the victim and the attacker to resolve the issue

48 / 72

48) Which of the following is not one of the 4 Cs?

A) Control

B) Conclusion

C) Clear

D) Confirm

49 / 72

49) Which of the following is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It removes the need for any other security measures

D) It will remove the need to call emergency services

50 / 72

50) In which of the following situations must effective communication be used?

A) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

B) When dealing with aggressive customers

C) When planning breaks for security staff

D) When managing the layout of furniture in the office

51 / 72

51) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) shared on social media to raise awareness

B) reviewed by only staff member

C) deleted after one month

D) accessed only by authorised personnel

52 / 72

52) Which or the following is a significant consequence that a security operative may face if they make a false arrest?

A) Temporary suspension from their job

B) Verbal warning from their employer

C) Civil or criminal prosecution

D) Requirement to attend additional training

53 / 72

53) Which of the following roles requires an up to date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Office receptionist

B) Delivery driver

C) Private Investigator

D) Manned Guarding

54 / 72

54) An attack is described as having a low threat level when it is:

A) almost certain

B) unlikely but possible

C) highly likely in the near future

D) highly unlikely

55 / 72

55) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform a manager and log the incident

56 / 72

56) Which of the following is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

B) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

C) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

D) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

57 / 72

57) Security operatives must understand the scope of the CCTVs cover to:

A) be aware of blind spots that CCTV may not see

B) ensure CCTV is used as the sole security measure

C) provide unrestricted access to all employees

D) make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

58 / 72

58) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can help convey emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Sending a text message

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Writing a polite email to someone

59 / 72

59) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Having a clear sense of direction

C) Attending an event with a group of friends

D) Being confident and energetic

60 / 72

60) Which of the following is an indicator of predatory behaviour?

A) Clearly observing and monitoring individuals

B) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

C) Taking part in group activities with friends

D) Directing a security to a distressed individual

61 / 72

61) Which of the following is a main feature of criminal law?

A) Local councils handle all the cases

B) The state brings the cases against individuals

C) Victims of the crime always brings the case to court

D) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

62 / 72

62) What does the term arrest mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To escort someone to safety

C) To take away someone's liberty

D) To question someone about a crime

63 / 72

63) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the current Health and Safety at Work etc Act?

A) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

B) Conducting health and safety assessments only when there is an accident

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

64 / 72

64) Which of the following is a basic principle of evacuation?

A) Blocking access to all staircases

B) Making sure security personnel leave first

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Making sure everyone stays calm and follows procedure

65 / 72

65) Evaluating security incidents is key to recognising:

A) good practices

B) good team building activities

C) financial bonuses

D) new opportunities for equipment

66 / 72

66) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire wardens

B) The location of fire extinguishers

C) The location of hazardous materials

D) The location of first aid kits

67 / 72

67) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Observing people and places to gather information

B) Speaking with security staff members to ask for directions

C) Taking a number of different pictures of a landmark

D) Monitoring a public event as a licenced CCTV operator

68 / 72

68) The main purpose of the anti-terror hotline is to:

A) report non-urgent suspicious activity

B) provide contact details to the correct medical services

C) provide details on terrorism prevention training

D) report threats needing urgent police action

69 / 72

69) Which of the following is not an example of duty of care?

A) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

B) Raising concerns regarding an individual's safety

C) Neglecting an individual as they do not appear vulnerable

D) Assisting an individual who seems lost

70 / 72

70) Which of the following must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) SIA standards and the company's values

B) Customer wishes and demands

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Personal preferences in handling situations

71 / 72

71) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

B) By ensuring the security operative meets the client's requirements

C) By providing only general instructions without specific details

D) By allowing the security operative to change their duties as they see fit

72 / 72

72) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Check the building for the fire's location

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Start a search for the source of the fire

D) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Module 2

/60

SO Module 2

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 2" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 60

1) During incidents, dynamic risk assessments help to:

A) prevent prosecution

B) keep everyone safe

C) prevent crimes

D) only keep yourself safe

2 / 60

2) The most important reason for crime scenes to be preserved is to:

A) keep the site clean

B) help identify offenders

C) make arrests

D) help the ambulance service

3 / 60

3) The most effective way to safely dispose of a needle is to put it in:

A) the waste bin

B) a bottle

C) a sharps box

D) newspaper, wrapped up

4 / 60

4) A feature of security systems is that they:

A) detect external interference

B) record customer preferences in a retail shop

C) measure the number of pedestrians entering a site

D) identify the type of vehicles entering a site

5 / 60

5) Security officers should only use physical interventions if they:

A) are trained

B) do not have backup

C) have authority from the police

D) are martial arts experts

6 / 60

6) Properly maintained protection systems are less likely to:

A) require software updates

B) require servicing

C) malfunction

D) function correctly

7 / 60

7) Body-worn cameras (BWC) are not used to:

A) protects against false allegations

B) identify offenders

C) record incidents for social media

D) gather evidence of crimes

8 / 60

8) Ignoring your personal safety during a conflict situation will most likely:

A) increase the need for extra staff

B) increase the risk of escalation

C) reduce the need for reports

D) decrease the risk of escalation

9 / 60

9) Following an arrest by a security officer, the next action should be to call the:

A) security company

B) police

C) local press

D) site owner

10 / 60

10) When managing queues, it is important to assess what?

A) Customer behaviour

B) Customer religion

C) Customer age

D) Customer height

11 / 60

11) Keeping your knowledge and skills up to date will most likely:

A) decrease your efficiency

B) increase the risk to your personal safety

C) ensure you comply with your contract

D) reduce risks to your personal safety

12 / 60

12) Which of the following is not a statutory agency employee?

A) A police officer

B) A fire officer

C) A national health service employee

D) A health and safety inspector

13 / 60

13) On activation of a fire alarm, what should a security officer working on access control do?

A) Do nothing until the alarm is confirmed as genuine

B) Open any entry/exit barriers and monitor them

C) Leave their post and go to the assembly point

D) Go and look for the area on fire

14 / 60

14) You can increase your personal safety at work by:

A) staying alert

B) taking longer breaks drinking plenty of coffee staying alert

C) noting pocketbook entries

D) drinking plenty of coffee

15 / 60

15) Metal detectors in search areas are mainly used to prevent the entry of

A) alcohol

B) drugs

C) weapons

D) mobile phones

16 / 60

16) From the following, what skill can help you during a conflict situation?

A) Active listening

B) Authoritative speech

C) Positive talking

D) Negative communication

17 / 60

17) Snap patrols carried out during a shift are made as the result of a specific what?

A) Rumour

B) Incident

C) Request

D) Complaint

18 / 60

18) While on duty, a security officer can get assistance, guidance and emergency support from:

A) other staff from the organisation

B) the security control room

C) the security manager's office during office hours

D) human resources

19 / 60

19) It is important to check the identification documents of all visitors to:

A) check the age of everyone entering

B) allow access for statutory agencies

C) comply with council regulations

D) prevent unauthorised access

20 / 60

20) Which of the following requests for access should make a security officer suspicious?

A) An appointment that has been notified to security

B) No appointment confirmed but with a named contact

C) No appointment confirmed and no known contact

D) An appointment confirmed with a named contact

21 / 60

21) An example of a physical protection system to help prevent article theft is an electronic article surveillance (EAS) device. These are more commonly known as:

A) triggers

B) bugs

C) buzzers

D) tags

22 / 60

22) In addition to physical harm, physical interventions are most likely to cause:

A) job loss

B) work-related stress

C) vehicle accidents

D) marriage problems

23 / 60

23) Which of the following are not items of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A) Pocketbooks

B) Personal alarms

C) Body-worn cameras

D) Metal detectors

24 / 60

24) Pre-entry checks are carried out on a site before it opens to:

A) ensure the site is clean

B) ensure the site is safe

C) comply with council policy

D) comply with building regulations

25 / 60

25) The main purpose of a final patrol is to:

A) prevent criminals from predicting when security is present

B) identify serious problems throughout the shift

C) comply with the supervisor's instructions

D) ensure no problems exist for the next officer on duty

26 / 60

26) Retail security most likely involves the protection of:

A) government buildings

B) management

C) businesses

D) licensed premises

27 / 60

27) Which of the following is an example of a general search?

A) Everyone is searched

B) Only males are searched

C) Searches carried out during daylight hours only

D) Searches carried out only at night

28 / 60

28) When operating an external automated security barrier, a security officer should ensure that:

A) only cars enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

B) only staff vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

C) only emergency vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

D) only one vehicle enters or exits the site when the barrier is raised.

29 / 60

29) Which of the following best describes the main responsibility of a security officer?

A) Attracting more clients for the organisation

B) Preventing waste of the organisation's materials

C) Guarding premises against unauthorised access

D) Ensuring the site is monitored 24 hours a day

30 / 60

30) Search records help prove that searches have been carried out:

A) with a search warrant

B) by the police

C) lawfully

D) inappropriately

31 / 60

31) Reflecting on personal safety experiences will most likely:

A) cause a change in procedures

B) lead to the recruitment of more staff

C) make you safer

D) keep supervisors happy

32 / 60

32) Which of the following incidents would require a call to the emergency services?

A) A check-call

B) A fire

C) A leaking tap

D) A trip or fall

33 / 60

33) Security officer patrols carried out at the start of the shift are called:

A) initial patrols

B) primary patrols

C) interim patrols

D) general patrols

34 / 60

34) A fire alarm system can assist a security officer by:

A) alerting officers to intruders

B) alerting officers to incidents

C) informing the ambulance service

D) showing evacuation routes

35 / 60

35) In all conflict situations, security officers need to carry out ongoing:

A) injury surveys

B) risk assessments aggravation assessments

C) accident report book

D) risk surveys

36 / 60

36) What are the 2 telephone numbers you can use to call the emergency services on?

A) 999 and 211

B) 999 and 112

C) 100 and 112

D) 999 and 100

37 / 60

37) Safety is the responsibility of:

A) everyone

B) employees only

C) employers only

D) health and safety personnel

38 / 60

38) If a member of staff refuses to be searched on exit, a security officer should:

A) allow them to exit and take no further action

B) tell them that it is a breach of their contract and record all details

C) remove their personal property and allow them to leave

D) take them to a separate room and search them anyway

39 / 60

39) Which types of people are most likely to put your personal safety at greater risk?

A) Intoxicated people

B) Elderly people

C) Lone individuals

D) Young people

40 / 60

40) Having a good method of entry control will ensure that:

A) health and safety risks are recorded

B) visitors' identification is properly checked before entry

C) managers can check who is working on the site

D) staff are thoroughly searched when entering

41 / 60

41) While completing patrols, you should stay in contact with:

A) the police

B) the health and safety team

C) the site owner

D) the control room

42 / 60

42) Following a serious incident and to preserve evidence, access to a crime scene should be what?

A) Open to the public

B) Unrestricted

C) Restricted

D) Photographed

43 / 60

43) Which of the following statements describes best practice when carrying out searches?

A) Authorisation by a supervisor must be granted before any search begins

B) Anyone can be searched on entry to a site

C) Force can be used if a search is refused

D) Permission by the subject must always be given before a search

44 / 60

44) On finding some damage on the site during a patrol, who should you report it to initially?

A) The accounts department

B) The health and safety team

C) The control room

D) The site owner

45 / 60

45) A security officer would secure any unauthorised items found during a search by following:

A) the advice of colleagues

B) a supervisor's instructions

C) police guidelines

D) the assignment instructions

46 / 60

46) What should a security officer do immediately on activation of a fire alarm?

A) Ignore it until confirmed as genuine

B) Check the control panel for the location

C) Silence the alarm while they investigate

D) Implement full evacuation of the site

47 / 60

47) What pro-word means 'my message ends, please reply?

A) Repeat

B) Over

C) Out

D) Wait

48 / 60

48) While searching the interior of a vehicle, you will not be required to search:

A) under the carpets

B) in door pockets

C) the exhaust pipe

D) under the seats

49 / 60

49) If a customer or member of the public sustains a minor injury during a vehicle search, your first action should be to contact:

A) your line manager

B) the site owner

C) the police

D) a first-aider

50 / 60

50) Using personal protective equipment (PPE) correctly will:

A) protect you from harm

B) make your job easier

C) make you comfortable

D) save you time

51 / 60

51) The use of CCTV in search areas will most likely prevent.

A) criminal damage

B) malicious allegations

C) needle-stick injuries

D) drugs contamination

52 / 60

52) What is the main risk with a needle-stick injury?

A) Sickness

B) Infectious diseases

C) Bleeding

D) Pain

53 / 60

53) If a visitor refuses to be searched at the access point to a site the security officer should:

A) arrest the visitor for refusing to be searched

B) refuse entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

C) refuse entry and report the matter to the police

D) allow entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

54 / 60

54) Which of the following is not an example of illegal drugs litter?

A) Burnt spoons

B) Discarded needles

C) Empty beer cans

D) Scorched tinfoil

55 / 60

55) Which of the following would be considered a type of security technology?

A) A swipe card door access key

B) Steel grills on windows

C) Speed ramps on the approach road

D) security guard at barrier control

56 / 60

56) Information on who security officers should allow onto a site can be found in the:

A) health and safety policy

B) fire policy

C) admissions policy

D) entrance book

57 / 60

57) Positional asphyxia is most likely to be caused by:

A) contact with non-weapon items

B) restraint on the ground

C) an arm hold

D) strikes and kicks

58 / 60

58) Check calls contribute to a security officer's:

A) safety

B) time-keeping

C) efficiency

D) conduct

59 / 60

59) How would you spell the word CAT using the phonetic alphabet?

A) Cat, Apple, Tunisia

B) Charlie, Apple, Tango

C) Charlie, Alpha, Tango

D) Charlie, Alpha, Toga

60 / 60

60) A customer approaches the front door and has enlarged pupils and rapid jaw movement; this is a potential indicator that they are under the influence of:

A) Alcohol

B) Ecstasy

C) Marijuana

D) LSD

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 3

/50

SO Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) By criticising the actions of the customer

B) Showing empathy towards the customer

C) Being bossy towards the customer

D) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

2 / 50

2) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Force to stop an argument

B) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

C) Take one to another room to separate them

D) Threaten to call the police

3 / 50

3) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak loudly

B) Speak aggressively

C) Speak calmly

D) Speak quickly

4 / 50

4) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Local Council

B) The lead security operative

C) The Victim Support Scheme

D) The manager

5 / 50

5) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Speaking to the customer seriously

B) Being assertive towards the customer

C) Advising to the customer

D) Not listening to the customer

6 / 50

6) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Explaining the potential outcomes behaviour continuing

B) Being assertive

C) Being threatening

D) Displaying empathy to show you understand to other person

7 / 50

7) Empathy means being able to:

A) Understand another person’s point of view

B) Share someone else's opinion

C) Ignore someone else's opinion

D) Encourage another person’s perception

8 / 50

8) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) Any direction given are followed

B) Your opinion is heard

C) The outcome is successful

D) They complain to management

9 / 50

9) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Political barrier

B) Psychological barrier

C) Physical barrier

D) Social barrier

10 / 50

10) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will avoid being disciplined

B) May get disciplined

C) Can ignore injury

D) Will continue to perform well

11 / 50

11) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) only paying partial attention to the other person

B) gesturing with open palms

C) Facing the other person directly

D) Dodging eye contact

12 / 50

12) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Optimistic

B) Angry

C) Motivated

D) Empowered

13 / 50

13) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Being kept waiting

B) Being disregarded

C) Not providing relevant information

D) Being fearful of the consequences

14 / 50

14) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

C) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

D) The conflict will remain unresolved

15 / 50

15) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Victim Support

B) Crime Stoppers

C) Child Line

D) Samaritans

16 / 50

16) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Minimal

B) Suitable

C) Mandatory

D) Reasonable

17 / 50

17) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

B) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

C) It empowers the customer to take charge

D) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

18 / 50

18) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Empathic

B) A spin-off

C) Compromised

D) A win-win

19 / 50

19) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Kick the customer out without warning

B) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

C) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

D) Exert all available force

20 / 50

20) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

B) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

C) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

D) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

21 / 50

21) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

B) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

C) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

D) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

22 / 50

22) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) For the safety of yourself and others

B) You might be fired from your workplace

C) You cannot guarantee victory

D) The customer might bring his friends

23 / 50

23) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Comfortable

B) Insulted

C) Нарру

D) Appreciated

24 / 50

24) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Note down the instructions

B) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

C) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

D) Develop a rapport with the customer

25 / 50

25) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Various clothes

B) Diverse hair colour

C) Different eye colour

D) Different cultures

26 / 50

26) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Less

B) Mandatory

C) Reasonable

D) Approachable

27 / 50

27) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) Make a positive impression on your manager

B) To get a promotion

C) To pick up trends

D) To get increase in salary

28 / 50

28) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Recognition

B) Humiliation

C) Stimulus

D) Motivation

29 / 50

29) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Having strong personal values

B) Being unsure of what action is take

C) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

D) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

30 / 50

30) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Persuasive communication

B) Effective communication

C) Concise communication

D) Poor communication

31 / 50

31) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

B) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

C) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

D) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

32 / 50

32) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

B) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search

C) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

D) 'I need that bag to make search it.

33 / 50

33) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) Will still do a nice job

B) Will ignore being disciplined

C) might avoid injury

D) May get disciplined

34 / 50

34) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

35 / 50

35) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

B) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

C) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

36 / 50

36) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Empathy

B) Frustration

C) Assertiveness

D) Awareness

37 / 50

37) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Loss of your employment

B) The customer departing

C) An argument

D) Have your driver's license suspended

38 / 50

38) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

B) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

C) It minimizes the chances of a risk

D) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

39 / 50

39) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

B) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

C) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

D) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

40 / 50

40) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

B) Bully at them and tell jokes

C) Begin to use abusive personal language

D) Stand further away from the employee

41 / 50

41) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Patronised

C) Assertive

D) Capable

42 / 50

42) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Shocked

B) Treated like a valued guest

C) Loses face

D) Made to feel welcome

43 / 50

43) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

B) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

C) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

D) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

44 / 50

44) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Fighting back

B) Ignoring the legal consequences

C) Being rude

D) Fear of retaliation

45 / 50

45) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

B) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

C) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

D) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

46 / 50

46) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Try to talk their way out of the situation

B) Hold until the employee moves

C) Try to force their way past the employee

D) Tell the manager

47 / 50

47) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

B) Their hearing tunes into the threat

C) Their heartbeat decelerates

D) Their thought processes become more logical

48 / 50

48) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Irrational and emotional

B) Rational and psychological

C) Rational and emotional

D) Rational and social

49 / 50

49) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

D) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

50 / 50

50) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Frustration

B) Patience

C) Assertiveness

D) Violence

Your score is

The average score is 69%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

Quick Links

Our Construction Services

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SIA Approved Security Training Courses

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