Security Officer Mock Test

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Module 1A
Module 1B
Module 1C
Module 1D
Module 2
Module 3

Module 1A

/100

Module 1A - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1A - Working in PSI" mock test.

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1 / 100

1) If there is a security danger, a security officer should:

A) Keep the emergency services updated every hour on the situation

B) Cut back on patrols to allow operatives to focus on other priorities

C) Maintain organised search procedures

D) Inform the local MP of the security threat

2 / 100

2) A job done by a fire marshal is:

A) Ensure that fire extinguishers are replenished when necessary

B) Counting all staff entering the building

C) Enabling people to exit the building in the event of a fire

D) Checking that fire doors are unobstructed

3 / 100

3) If a suspicious package is discovered, the initial response that should be undertaken is to:

A) Contact army bomb disposal officers

B) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

C) the appropriate place for this discussion

D) Inspect it and try to figure out what is inside

4 / 100

4) One goal of the Private Security Industry Act is to:

A) Provide a means of hiring security operatives

B) Make sure security guards are first-aid certified

C) Improve conviction rates in the security industry

D) Raise standards within the security industry

5 / 100

5) Which of the following is an approach that does not contribute to keeping personal information secure?"

A) Keeping information secret

B) Discussing work issues outside the workplace

C) Meeting the legal obligations of data protection legislation

D) Following the rules and regulations of the organization

6 / 100

6) The most accurate definition of the threat level 'substantial' is that an attack is:

A) Assured

B) Unexpected

C) Likely

D) Unlikely

7 / 100

7) When you go to court to share information, the most vital thing is that you are:

A) Prepared

B) Wearing clothes appropriately

C) Polite

D) On-time

8 / 100

8) What is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Increased individual recognition

B) Increased competition among colleagues

C) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

D) Reduced need for security staff

9 / 100

9) What is the full form of AI?

A) Artificial Intel

B) Assignment Instructions

C) Argument Incitement

D) Augmented Intelligence

10 / 100

10) A workplace danger is probably:

A) Vivid lighting

B) Air cooling

C) A dangerous substance

D) Un heatedness

11 / 100

11) Which of the following is an element that does not pose a risk in the context of working alone?

A) Lack of conversation

B) Lack of communication

C) Lack of welfare facilities

D) Lack of support

12 / 100

12) A fire involving burning petrol would be categorized as what type of fire?

A) Class A

B) Class C

C) Class D

D) Class B

13 / 100

13) What are the three things needed for a fire to happen?

A) Air, Oxygen and fuel

B) Oxygen, Fuel and a heat source

C) A heat source, air and oxygen

D) A heat source, paper and wood.

14 / 100

14) The most likely consequence of invacuation is that:

A) There are limited escape routes

B) The area is protected

C) There is a physical barrier between you and the threat

D) People are placed directly in risk

15 / 100

15) What is the kind of permanent setup that has pipes with heads that turn on to stop a fire and keep it from spreading?

A) Integrated hose reel

B) Sprinkler

C) Flooding System

D) Riser

16 / 100

16) What is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It never captures sensitive information

B) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) It is accessible to the general public at any time

D) It automatically restricts footage access for certain individuals

17 / 100

17) What is an instance of a workplace hazard?

A) Unblocked fire exits

B) Staircase

C) Correctly stored materials

D) Closed fire doors

18 / 100

18) Which of the following is not likely to be completing by a security operative?

A) Training record

B) Log of keys

C) Sign-in book for visitors

D) Search log

19 / 100

19) Following involvement in a violent incident, it would be most advantageous for a staff member to seek support by:

A) Posting details of the incident on social media

B) Sending a letter to the local MP

C) Talking through the incident with colleagues

D) Celebrating with friends

20 / 100

20) What is a critical factor in managing crowd control during an emergency?

A) Do nothing

B) Shout at customers

C) Use force to move people

D) Stay calm and take charge

21 / 100

21) If a security operative is made aware of a vulnerable female following a domestic argument, the most appropriate action to take is to contact:

A) St John Ambulance

B) The local police station

C) The local office of the Samaritans

D) The local council

22 / 100

22) What element from the following can be eliminated to disrupt the fire triangle?

A) Powder

B) Foam

C) Fuel

D) Smoke

23 / 100

23) In a crisis, people may get scared and rush toward tight exits. This is likely to lead to:

A) Surging

B) Shivering

C) Fight or Flight

D) Crushing

24 / 100

24) What are the risks faced by working alone?

A) Feeling Drowsy

B) Injuries/Illness that may require medical attention

C) Nothing

D) Becoming bored

25 / 100

25) Prohibition signs are:

A) Blue and white

B) Yellow and black

C) Green and white

D) Red and white

26 / 100

26) The private security industry primarily exists to safeguard:

A) Boundaries

B) Possessions

C) Life

D) Privacy

27 / 100

27) The goal of assignment instructions is to offer:

A) Guidelines about site duties and roles

B) Insurance policy information

C) Staff details

D) Guidelines for site managers only

28 / 100

28) The primary job of the Security Industry Authority (SIA) is to:

A) Uphold the law and protect the public in the absence of police

B) Regulate local taxi drivers by licensing

C) License some roles within the private security industry

D) Manage business owner's conduct

29 / 100

29) Which of the following roles is not considered a licensed security role?

A) Door Supervisor

B) Close protection operative

C) Event steward

D) Cash and valuables in transit operative

30 / 100

30) When someone with disabilities asks for help, it's important to follow the company rules because:

A) You may be reported if you do not

B) They are a customer needing assistance

C) They may be testing my customer service skills

D) You may be being watched

31 / 100

31) What kind of arrest can a security worker perform?

A) Taking into custody with a warrant

B) Security industry arrest

C) Police take into custody

D) Citizen’s arrest

32 / 100

32) If someone requires treatment for a minor injury, a security operative should first contact:

A) A paramedic

B) A doctor

C) Their supervisor

D) A first-aider

33 / 100

33) When there's an urgent situation, some individuals might not want to go. This is known as:

A) Surging

B) Freezing

C) Flight

D) Denial

34 / 100

34) According to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, all premises should be:

A) Checked for noise pollution every 6 months

B) Secure and protected

C) Clean and safe

D) Inspected for damp every 3 months

35 / 100

35) Among these options, what is not a good enough reason to arrest someone?

A) Causing injury to themselves

B) Causing injury to other

C) Destroying property

D) Refusing a search

36 / 100

36) What is the first action that a security operative should take upon discovering a fire?

A) Call the emergency services

B) Open all doors and windows

C) Raise the alarm!

D) Tackle the fire with the appropriate extinguisher

37 / 100

37) What is a drawback or constraint associated with Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV)?

A) Small camera lens

B) Large camera lens

C) Poor camera coverage

D) Widespread camera monitoring

38 / 100

38) Which of the following is a non-criminal case?

A) Robery

B) Trespass

C) Fraud

D) Theft

39 / 100

39) Which of the following is the best definition of an ‘occurrence’?

A) Chance of happening something

B) Risk of something happening

C) Something that may happen

D) Something that has happened

40 / 100

40) A key objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Allow security companies to tender for public contracts

B) Provide detailed information on staff pay and condition

C) To regulate the private security industry, reduce crime and raise standards within the industry

D) Stop police involvement in all security matters

41 / 100

41) Signs of suspicious activity may be indicated by:

A) People walking around a building watching CCTV camera

B) A social gathering outside a bar

C) A group of men standing outside a railway station late at night

D) A group of people dressed in bizarre clothing

42 / 100

42) Assignment instructions give you directions on what to do.

A) Regarding insurance

B) For only the managers of a site

C) That enable security officers to learn about staff

D) On the site’s roles and duties

43 / 100

43) What does the term "arrest" mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To escort someone to safety

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To take away someone's freedom

44 / 100

44) The right way to make an arrest is to:

A) Contact the police, detain the individual and explain the reason for the arrest

B) Detain the individual, call the police and explain the reason for the arrest.

C) Explain the reason for the arrest, detain the individual and call the police

D) Detain the individual, explain the reason for the arrest and call the police

45 / 100

45) What are the reasons for security operatives having a clear understanding of fire evacuation procedures?

A) To help them to judge whether the evacuation is a drill and advise people accordingly

B) To enable them to re-enter the premises to search for anyone who is missing

C) To allow them to be the first to reach the assembly point and take a roll call

D) So that they can provide effective assistance in the event of an emergency

46 / 100

46) Upon detecting a fire, the initial step a security operative should take is to:

A) Stay calm and wait for help to arrive

B) Move away from the fire

C) Raise the alarm

D) Start evacuating the premises

47 / 100

47) Which of these things would be considered an urgent situation?

A) Heart attack

B) Sunstroke

C) Ankle sprain

D) Crushed finger

48 / 100

48) The aim of establishing effective evacuation procedures is to:

A) Optimize fire marshals' search time

B) Ensure everyone goes to the same fire assembly point

C) Ensure that the fire service can easily access the venue

D) Help to ensure the safety of yourself and others

49 / 100

49) What should you do after a small accident happens at work?

A) Emergency medical supplies should be collected

B) A certified first aider should always be present

C) An ambulance should always be called

D) An accident book should be completed

50 / 100

50) One of the guiding principles of providing excellent customer service is to:

A) Create a rapport with the customer as soon as possible

B) Instruct the customer to follow the prescribed steps

C) Always consider the organization's perspective

D) Always question the customer’s viewpoint

51 / 100

51) As per the behavioral standards established by the Security Industry Authority (SIA), a security operative is required to:

A) Use moderate language

B) Wear comfortable clothes

C) Be physically strong

D) Be laid-back

52 / 100

52) What is the abbreviation ABH short for?

A) Actual Bad Harm

B) Actual Bad Hurt

C) Actual Body Hurt

D) Actual Bodily Harm

53 / 100

53) What color shade of a sign indicate safe conditions?

A) Red

B) Green

C) Yellow

D) Blue

54 / 100

54) Somebody shrugging their shoulders is an example of:

A) Oral communication

B) Written communication

C) Verbal communication

D) Non-verbal communication

55 / 100

55) One of the primary motivations for documenting notes during or shortly after an incident is due to:

A) The details recorded by the operator are more likely to be accurate

B) The supervisor must review the incident immediately afterwards

C) It is unlikely that the operator will remember to write a report later

D) It saves colleagues the hassle of writing a report later in the shift

56 / 100

56) The best thing about communicating well while taking care of customers is that it:

A) Makes the other person's life easier

B) Reduces incidents of conflict

C) Ensures all problems are solved

D) Ensure compliance by aggressors

57 / 100

57) For a security operative, the most appropriate interpretation of the term 'run, hide, and tell' is to evacuate:

A) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

B) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

C) The attackers, leaving all others behind

D) Others from the danger, while staying behind

58 / 100

58) Which of the following is performed on a daily basis?

A) Documentation of an incident

B) Lost and found report

C) Accident Record

D) Handover report

59 / 100

59) A danger of working alone in the private security field is:

A) Maintaining regular communication with the supervisor

B) Being isolated and having to rely on technology for back up

C) Teamwork challenges

D) Having CCTV as a backup plan in case of other security measures failing

60 / 100

60) Which of the following behaviours is most likely to indicate a sexual predator?

A) A person stumbling and staggering around the venue

B) A heavily intoxicated person leaving with s sober person.

C) A solo performer on the dance floor

D) A drunk person leaving with a group of intoxicated people.

61 / 100

61) What is the initial step in creating a 5-part statement?

A) Close the statement

B) Set the scene

C) Introduction

D) Chronological account

62 / 100

62) A benefit of good teamwork is that it:

A) Escalate pay

B) Lowers the requirement for risk assessments

C) Promotes safety

D) Cut down the need for assignment instructions

63 / 100

63) Why should we only make an arrest when there's no other option left?

A) Because the manager of the premises would have to ensure the safety and security of the detained person

B) Because the police officers tend to prefer making arrests themselves

C) Because the personal safety of a security operative can be put at risk

D) Because the security operative would have to complete an incident report

64 / 100

64) What are some of the ways that sexual predators may behave?

A) Being muscular

B) Preferring own company

C) Closely watching vulnerable people

D) Texting someone

65 / 100

65) If something is proven to be suspicious, a security worker must:

A) Photograph the suspicious object for the disposal experts

B) Do not move until the bomb squad arrive

C) Do not leave your position until the emergency services arrive

D) Evacuate using the safety exit

66 / 100

66) The probability of a fire occurring is likely decreased by:

A) Keeping waste close to public spaces

B) Getting appliances inspected every few years

C) Implementing a comprehensive recycling system

D) Having good housekeeping practices

67 / 100

67) What is the meaning of the word "theft"?

A) Taking something without consent with no intention of returning it

B) Stealing using Force

C) Stealing something to later return it

D) Threatening to take something from someone

68 / 100

68) From the following, the best method of deterring anti – social behaviour is to carry out:

A) Patrols at the same time every day

B) Lockdown patrols

C) High-profile patrols

D) Covert patrols

69 / 100

69) During a security alert, a security operative may be required to:

A) Increase high-visibility patrols

B) Notify the fire and ambulance service that they may be needed soon

C) Tell to the local council

D) Arrange for trained first – aid staff to be available

70 / 100

70) Who should a security officer call first for a small first-aid problem?

A) The health and safety manager

B) The supervisor

C) A qualified first-aider

D) NHS Direct

71 / 100

71) If a suspicious package is discovered, the first action that should be taken is to:

A) Establish whether it is owned by anyone present

B) Contact army bomb disposal officers

C) Investigate it to see what's inside

D) Another location

72 / 100

72) The security operator must write down clear and thorough notes about what happened.

A) At the time or as soon as practicable

B) When the operator has some extra time

C) At any time as long as it is before the end of the shift

D) Within the next 24 hours

73 / 100

73) According to the SIA’s standards for behaviour for security operatives’, a security operative should be:

A) Professional

B) Physically strong

C) Computer literate

D) Open to working

74 / 100

74) To make sure private information stays safe, a security worker needs to:

A) Talk to your family about work-related problems

B) Publish work-related information on social media

C) Maintain confidentiality

D) Talk about work-related topics in a place where others can hear you

75 / 100

75) It is important for an employee to discuss with colleagues how an incident was successfully resolved as:

A) It enables the employee to finish the written report

B) It prohibits the employer from criticizing the incident response

C) The employee can know their colleagues’ lack of experience

D) It allows colleagues to learn from an example of best practice

76 / 100

76) What is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Walk calmly away

B) Fight or flight

C) Freeze and surrender

D) Seek out a crowded place

77 / 100

77) A security officer who is making an arrest is using the authority described in:

A) A common law

B) Personal safety law

C) Data protection law

D) Health and safety law

78 / 100

78) A case of verbal communication can be exemplified by:

A) Voicemail message

B) Log-book entry

C) Textual message on cellular phone

D) Electronic message sent in Morse code

79 / 100

79) Marauding terror attacks include the use of:

A) Vehicles as a weapon

B) Improvised explosive devices

C) Firearms

D) Chemicals

80 / 100

80) What is the preferred ink color for record keeping?

A) Red

B) Black

C) Blue

D) Green

81 / 100

81) A situation that is right away dangerous to life or property is called:

A) An occurrence

B) An emergency

C) A danger

D) A close call

82 / 100

82) After someone is arrested, the proof should be:

A) Sanitized

B) Devastated

C) Preserved

D) In proportion

83 / 100

83) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Online gaming forums

B) Social media platforms

C) Colleagues and management

D) Entertainment websites and apps

84 / 100

84) Non-verbal communication can involve:

A) Tone of voice

B) Technical language

C) Voicemails

D) Facial expression

85 / 100

85) What are the three factors of the fire triangle?

A) Heat, Oxygen, Fire

B) Heat, Fuel, Oxygen

C) Harmful, Fire, Oxygen

D) Heat, Food, Oxygen

86 / 100

86) Seeking assistance and support in the aftermath of an incident is essential

A) Reduces the chances of developing emotional problems

B) Is mandated by employment law

C) Enable the likelihood of mental health issues

D) Is necessity of health and safety

87 / 100

87) If someone is lying on the ground and looks like they touched an electrical cable while unconscious, the first thing to do is:

A) Start first-aid treatment immediately

B) Drape a blanket over them to keep them warm

C) Shake them hard

D) Turn off the power

88 / 100

88) What is the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

B) To report lost goods to law enforcement

C) To submit customer service suggestions

D) To submit complaints against security personnel

89 / 100

89) An indicator of possible abuse is:

A) Arrogance

B) Assurance

C) Assertiveness

D) Insecurity

90 / 100

90) What is most likely an indicator of suspicious activity?

A) People trying to avoid being seen on CCTV

B) People inquiring about directions

C) An individual jogging around a structure

D) Someone clicking photographs of their friends

91 / 100

91) Which of the following is an outcome of equal opportunities legislation in the workplace?

A) Fewer opportunities for men

B) Increased pay for men

C) Shorter work hours for women

D) Standardised pay scales

92 / 100

92) Security operatives must look after vulnerable people in order to:

A) Stop the police from coming to the premises

B) Stop them from being arrested

C) Prevent them from becoming victims of crime

D) Save their employer’s reputation

93 / 100

93) The key thing in a fire procedure that security staff should be aware of is:

A) The location of fire exits and assembly points

B) The names of the fire marshals in the building

C) How to ensure that alarms are working properly

D) How to maintain fire extinguishers in good working order

94 / 100

94) A main objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Eliminate criminal elements from the industry

B) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

D) Decrease the number of security personnel in the industry

95 / 100

95) Which of the following is a guiding principle of the Data Protection Act 2018?

A) Personal date shall not be kept for longer than is necessary

B) Personal data shall be subject to unlimited processing

C) Personal data shall be freely transferred abroad

D) Personal data shall be used for marketing purposes

96 / 100

96) The most important explanation of 'run, hide, and tell' for a security worker is to get away.

A) The aggressors retreating, deserting everyone else

B) Yourself from the danger, taking others with you

C) Shielding others from danger, while remaining behind

D) Yourself from the danger, leaving others behind

97 / 100

97) The 1974 Health and Safety at Work Act is for:

A) Employers only

B) Companies only

C) Employees only

D) Both employers and employees

98 / 100

98) The duty of verifying that an area is free from obstructions during a fire alarm lies with:

A) Building’s fire marshal

B) Local fire and rescue officer

C) Company human resources manager

D) Security officer in charge

99 / 100

99) What are the key things to keep in mind when dealing with customer needs?

A) Make a good first impression

B) Try and impress the customers who are better looking

C) Customers are always wrong

D) We should not talk to customers

100 / 100

100) An employee should think about conflicts in order to:

A) Assess the prosecution risk

B) Assess the disciplinary risk

C) Determine whether they have chosen the right career

D) Help deal with future incidents more effectively

Your score is

The average score is 72%

Module 1B

/100

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 100

1) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

A) Immediately attempt to resolve the situation

B) Alert the appropriate emergency services

C) Try to identify the cause of the incident before taking action

D) Continue working and let senior staff members deal with the incident

2 / 100

2) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

A) To provide contact details for medical services

B) To offer information on terrorism prevention training

C) To report non-urgent suspicious activities

D) To report immediate threats requiring urgent police action

3 / 100

3) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Contact the transport's customer service team

B) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' reporting initiative

C) Directly confront the individual

D) Only report it if a crime actually occurs

4 / 100

4) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

A) Promoting competition among local businesses

B) Reducing opportunities for crimes

C) Limiting communication between security teams

D) Increasing the number of security personnel in an area

5 / 100

5) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking calmly

B) Speaking in an aggressive tone

C) Being confrontational

D) Writing down instructions

6 / 100

6) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

A) Allowing the behavior if it seems harmless

B) Reporting the behavior using the ACT online system

C) Calling 101 for non-emergency incidents

D) Engaging the person with professional customer service

7 / 100

7) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

A) To avoid contact with any key personnel

B) To change the security measures based on personal judgment

C) To know the correct actions and contacts needed in the situation

D) To maintain a low profile during the emergency

8 / 100

8) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Be aware of blind spots that CCTV might not cover

B) Ensure CCTV is the sole security measure used

C) Make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Provide unrestricted access to all employees

9 / 100

9) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By focusing solely on the client's customer service responsibilities

B) By allowing the operative to change their duties as they see fit

C) By providing only general instructions without specific details

D) By ensuring the operative meets the client's specific needs

10 / 100

10) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

A) Requirement to attend additional training

B) Temporary suspension from their job

C) Civil or criminal prosecution

D) Verbal warning from their employer

11 / 100

11) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

A) Require additional paperwork and legal procedures

B) May result in increased stress for the security operative

C) Prevent the police from responding to other incidents

D) Can put the security operative's own safety at risk

12 / 100

12) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

A) Take a deep breath and lift the load quickly

B) Lift the load using the back muscles

C) Twist the body to get a better grip on the load

D) Assess the load to determine if it is safe to lift

13 / 100

13) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

B) Have the same powers of arrest as police officers

C) Have no special powers of arrest

D) Can detain individuals until they confess

14 / 100

14) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

A) Writing down passwords in a notebook

B) Using the same password for all accounts to make it easier to remember

C) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

D) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

15 / 100

15) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Proceed to the assembly point

B) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

C) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

D) Check the building for any missing people

16 / 100

16) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

A) Monitoring and responding to safety risks

B) Training employees in fire safety procedures

C) Repairing and inspecting faulty equipment

D) Providing first aid to injured staff

17 / 100

17) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

A) It means fewer security staff are needed

B) It increases individual recognition

C) It leads to more competition among staff

D) It enhances safety for both staff and the public

18 / 100

18) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Go home, hide from the threat, and share information on social media

B) Flee far from the danger, conceal yourself, and report to authorities

C) Head to the nearest exit, hide under equipment, and contact the media

D) Move to a safe location, take cover if necessary, and inform authorities

19 / 100

19) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

A) An accident report

B) A visitor log

C) A duty sheet

D) A search register

20 / 100

20) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force that is allowed if it leads to a positive outcome

B) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgment

C) Force used only after other reasonable options have been exhausted

D) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

21 / 100

21) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

A) Find, inform, restrict, evacuate or extinguish

B) Focus, inspect, react, evacuate

C) Fight, ignore, rescue, escape

D) Fast, inspect, remove, escape or extinguish

22 / 100

22) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

A) A noise complaint

B) An assault

C) Parking offenses

D) Littering

23 / 100

23) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

A) To encourage individuals to escalate the situation

B) To avoid escalating the situation and promote positive communication

C) To show authority and control over the situation

D) To frighten the individual and enforce positive communication

24 / 100

24) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

A) CCTV does not provide any deterrent effect against criminal activity

B) CCTV can capture individuals in areas where they expect privacy

C) It is often too grainy to be useful for identifying suspects

D) Footage can only be stored for a few hours before it is automatically deleted

25 / 100

25) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

A) Something that could reduce focus for a person or group

B) An environmental factor that could sometimes disrupt operations

C) A potential source of harm or negative health effects to individuals

D) Something that might cause occasional distractions

26 / 100

26) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

A) Ensure the regular inspection and maintenance of electrical equipment

B) Wait until the equipment shows signs of damage before replacing

C) Unplug all electrical equipment when not in use to avoid wear

D) Use equipment until it fails, as repairs are costly and unnecessary

27 / 100

27) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

B) Training security staff for private companies

C) Offering financial support to security contractors

D) Regulating the security industry through licensing

28 / 100

28) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

A) Licensing is only required for large security firms

B) Licensing is mandatory for all security operatives

C) Licensing is optional for all security companies

D) Licensing can be obtained through self-declaration

29 / 100

29) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

A) A colleague having an asthma attack

B) Fire spreading from a neighboring building

C) A package left unattended

D) Flooding caused by a burst pipe

30 / 100

30) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

A) To limit employee movement around the premises

B) To estimate costs for safety equipment

C) To improve employee productivity and performance

D) To understand who might be harmed and how to prevent it

31 / 100

31) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) State the total number of visitors

B) List the names of staff present

C) Detail the sequence of events leading up to it

D) Recount only the parts that seem important

32 / 100

32) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

A) Local councils handle all the cases

B) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

C) The state brings the cases against individuals

D) Victims of the crime always bring the case to court

33 / 100

33) What is a significant risk of lone working?

A) Difficulty in accessing regular breaks

B) Reduced access to basic health support

C) Equipment has a higher chance of failing

D) Increased exposure to potential violence

34 / 100

34) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

A) Store them in open containers near a heat source for easy access

B) Store them in a well-ventilated area exposed to direct sunlight

C) Keep them in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

D) Store them in a cool, dry, locked place, away from ignition sources

35 / 100

35) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To review an incident but take no reflective action

B) To aid them in avoiding discussions about the incident

C) To assess actions and reflect on an incident

D) To completely overlook the incident and move on

36 / 100

36) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

A) When arranging office furniture

B) When scheduling breaks for security staff

C) When interacting with hostile customers

D) When discussing personal matters outside of work

37 / 100

37) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Having a clear sense of direction

D) Being confident and energetic

38 / 100

38) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

A) To avoid supporting each individual customer

B) To avoid having to attend safety training sessions

C) To enable them to appropriately support vulnerable individuals

D) To help employees avoid responsibility in case of accidents

39 / 100

39) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

A) Listening to a colleague's opinion

B) A facial expression showing confusion

C) A notice posted on a door

D) A security operative speaking to a customer

40 / 100

40) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

A) To provide suggestions for customer service improvements

B) To report lost or stolen property to law enforcement

C) To report potential terrorist-related suspicious activities

D) To submit complaints against security personnel

41 / 100

41) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

A) Keep quiet about the injury to avoid causing disruption

B) Report the injury to their employer

C) Only document it if they require medical treatment

D) Wait until the end of the shift to report the injury

42 / 100

42) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

A) Immediately evacuate the building

B) Wait for the fire to burn itself out

C) Activate the fire alarm

D) Stop and try to find the fire's origin

43 / 100

43) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It removes the need to contact emergency services

B) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

C) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

D) It eliminates the need for any other security measures

44 / 100

44) What does the term "arrest" signify?

A) Depriving someone of their freedom

B) Questioning someone about an alleged crime

C) Guiding someone to a safe place

D) Informing someone of their legal rights

45 / 100

45) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Taking part in group activities with friends

B) Directing security to a distressed individual

C) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

D) Closely observing and monitoring individuals

46 / 100

46) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

A) Increasing entry fees to control access

B) Reducing the number of security staff on duty

C) Creating radio communication links with nearby locations

D) Hosting private social events for the community

47 / 100

47) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

A) Conducting highly visible patrols

B) Ignoring minor incidents

C) Avoiding any confrontation with individuals causing problems

D) Preventing interactions with the public

48 / 100

48) What does the term "arrest" generally mean?

A) To inform someone of their rights

B) To take away someone's liberty

C) To question someone about a crime

D) To escort someone to safety

49 / 100

49) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

A) Removing them from the premises

B) Providing immediate medical attention

C) Clear and concise communication

D) Offering physical assistance

50 / 100

50) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

A) To decrease the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

B) To permit unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) To eliminate criminal elements from the security sector

D) To reduce the overall number of security personnel

51 / 100

51) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

A) Might be conducting suspicious activities

B) Are an employee running late for a meeting

C) Might be unfamiliar with the layout of the premises

D) Are trying to avoid unwanted social interaction

52 / 100

52) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue

B) Separate the victim from the attacker

C) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

D) Notify the victim's family before taking action

53 / 100

53) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

A) To prevent the person from causing harm to themselves or others

B) To stop the person from fleeing before the police arrive

C) To ensure property is not damaged

D) To gather information about the offense

54 / 100

54) What is a key principle of customer service?

A) Minimizing interaction with the customer to avoid confusion

B) Establishing rapport while acknowledging the customer

C) Responding only when the customer asks directly for help

D) Giving the customer all of the information at once

55 / 100

55) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

56 / 100

56) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

A) An ongoing issue with no immediate safety impact

B) A situation requiring long-term planning for resolution

C) A planned event with a low risk of safety disruption

D) A sudden and unexpected event often needing quick action

57 / 100

57) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

A) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

D) An individual who appears disoriented

58 / 100

58) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

B) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority

D) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

59 / 100

59) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It enables individuals to work independently

B) It promotes communication and collaboration

C) It increases individual accountability

D) It encourages competition among colleagues

60 / 100

60) What describes a critical threat level?

A) An attack is highly likely

B) An attack is likely

C) An attack is extremely unlikely

D) An attack is possible but unlikely

61 / 100

61) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

A) Call their superior before taking any actions

B) Disarm the attacker and keep them away from the public

C) Run, hide, and encourage the public to follow suit

D) Encourage the public to help confront the attacker

62 / 100

62) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

A) Customer support agent

B) Personal trainer

C) Vehicle immobilizer

D) Maintenance person

63 / 100

63) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of hazardous materials

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of fire exits

64 / 100

64) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To raise performance standards within the private security industry

C) To reduce the need for customer service in security roles

D) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

65 / 100

65) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

A) Ignore their complaints directly

B) Ask them to return once they've calmed down

C) Deny there's any problem

D) Understand their perspective and take responsibility for the situation

66 / 100

66) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

A) Removing the fuel

B) Adding more heat

C) Adding more oxygen

D) Removing the carbon dioxide

67 / 100

67) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

B) Providing legal representation to businesses

C) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

D) Managing public relations for private companies

68 / 100

68) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

A) Using hand gestures

B) Speaking clearly to someone

C) Making a phone call

D) Reading a text message aloud

69 / 100

69) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Employee social gatherings outside work

B) Potential promotions within the company

C) Work-related personal projects

D) Dress code policies

70 / 100

70) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording shift instructions and break durations

B) Documenting found items

C) Documenting visitor entry and exit times

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

71 / 100

71) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To avoid potential liability for future issues

B) To follow legal requirements and document the incident

C) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

D) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

72 / 100

72) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

A) To make the communication sound more complex

B) To ensure accurate spellings of names and locations

C) To ensure only trained staff can understand the messages

D) To add a formal tone to the conversation

73 / 100

73) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

A) Always arriving on time and being well-groomed

B) Showing a lack of self-confidence and insecurity

C) Displaying confidence and strong self-esteem

D) Being outgoing and arranging social activities with friends

74 / 100

74) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

A) An epileptic seizure

B) A heart attack

C) A slip on a wet floor

D) A software update on a laptop

75 / 100

75) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

A) It ensures a favorable outcome in court

B) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

C) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

D) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

76 / 100

76) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

A) Taking pictures of a building's security measures

B) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

C) Taking pictures of a tourist group

D) Having a discussion with a family member

77 / 100

77) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

A) It is openly available for public viewing at any time

B) It automatically restricts access to recorded footage for certain people

C) It might record people in places where they expect privacy

D) It never captures sensitive information

78 / 100

78) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

A) Limit the number of security providers within the industry

B) Eliminate the need for security companies to be licensed

C) Promote high standards within the industry

D) Guarantee low prices for security services

79 / 100

79) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

A) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

B) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

80 / 100

80) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) SIA standards and the company's established values

B) Personal preferences for handling situations

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Customer wishes and demands

81 / 100

81) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

A) Indifference

B) Integrity

C) Dishonesty

D) Aggression

82 / 100

82) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

A) Smiling or frowning

B) Writing a polite email

C) Using hand signals to direct someone

D) Sending a text message

83 / 100

83) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

A) Reviewed by any staff member

B) Deleted after one month

C) Accessed only by authorized personnel

D) Shared on social media for public awareness

84 / 100

84) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

B) Covertly observing people and places to gather information

C) Speaking with security staff to ask for directions

D) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

85 / 100

85) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

A) Confront the alleged attacker immediately

B) Monitor the situation until approached by the victim

C) Follow the company's established procedures and policies

D) Ask the victim to provide evidence before taking action

86 / 100

86) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

A) Positive self-esteem

B) Changes in behavior

C) Decrease in social interactions

D) Consistent injuries

87 / 100

87) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

A) Planning out the route to the venue

B) Seeking guidance from a legal representative

C) Discussing the case with other eyewitnesses

D) Reviewing old criminal offenses

88 / 100

88) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

A) Keep it secret and withhold it from the police

B) Preserve it and hand it over to the police

C) Photograph it and then throw it away

D) Discard it and make a note in a logbook

89 / 100

89) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

A) Common illnesses among employees

B) A dangerous incident only if someone was injured

C) A dangerous incident, even if no injuries occurred

D) Minor slips resulting in small bruises

90 / 100

90) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

A) To improve the reputation of the venue

B) To make personal notes about customers

C) To avoid working extra hours

D) To comply with legal requirements

91 / 100

91) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

A) Calmly walking away

B) Freezing and surrendering

C) Fight or flight

D) Searching for a crowded area

92 / 100

92) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

A) Ask for identification from the individual being detained

B) Inform the individual that they are under arrest and provide the reason

C) Use force to prevent the individual from fleeing

D) Forcefully arrest the individual without explaining the reason

93 / 100

93) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

A) When it is almost certain to happen

B) When it is unlikely but still possible

C) When it is possible but not likely

D) When it is highly improbable

94 / 100

94) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

A) To avoid complaints from individuals

B) To easily identify vulnerability at first glance

C) To ensure everyone's safety, as vulnerability isn't always obvious

D) To protect only specific groups, such as the elderly or children

95 / 100

95) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

A) Entertainment websites and apps

B) Online gaming communities

C) Social media platforms

D) Colleagues and management

96 / 100

96) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

A) Requesting assistance with directions

B) Helping a lost individual return to their friends

C) Offering to buy drinks and goods for strangers

D) Advising bar staff about another customer who appears distressed

97 / 100

97) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

B) A colleague asking for help with a task

C) A manager requesting information

D) A team member needing assistance with a report

98 / 100

98) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

A) Allowing public access to live CCTV footage

B) Only keeping recordings taken from private spaces

C) Ensuring that recordings are available to all employees

D) Restricting access to CCTV recordings to authorized staff

99 / 100

99) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

A) Increased motivation to perform better

B) Enhanced team dynamics

C) Optimized focus on work projects

D) Developing negative coping mechanisms

100 / 100

100) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

A) Release of dangerous substances

B) Use of firearms

C) An individual stealing sensitive information

D) Hacking into a company's computer systems

Your score is

The average score is 66%

Module 1C

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

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1 / 92

1) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

A) To immediately leave the scene

B) To inform the media about the arrest

C) To ensure the safety and well-being of the arrested person

D) To contact a lawyer for the arrested person

2 / 92

2) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) To allow security companies to operate without regulation

B) To diminish the need for customer service in security roles

C) To limit the number of security contractors in the market

D) To elevate performance standards within the private security industry

3 / 92

3) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) Reviewed by any staff member

B) Shared on social media for awareness

C) Accessible only by authorized personnel

D) Deleted after one month

4 / 92

4) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Delivery driver

B) Office receptionist

C) Private investigator

D) Manned Guarding

5 / 92

5) When making arrests, security officers:

A) Possess the same arrest powers as police officers

B) Can arrest anyone suspected of any offense

C) Can detain individuals until they confess

D) Have no special powers of arrest

6 / 92

6) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

A) Instructions from colleagues

B) SIA standards and the company's values

C) Customer wishes and demands

D) Personal preferences in handling situations

7 / 92

7) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

A) The local community center

B) Trade unions

C) Samaritans

D) Advice Citizens Bureau

8 / 92

8) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of accidental slips resulting in minor bruises

B) Cases of common colds among employees

C) A dangerous occurrence, even if no one was injured

D) A dangerous occurrence only if someone was injured

9 / 92

9) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

A) Temporary suspension from their job

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) A verbal warning from their employer

10 / 92

10) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Documenting found items

B) Recording shift instructions and break times

C) Documenting visitor logs

D) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

11 / 92

11) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

A) Strengthening teamwork to manage situations effectively

B) Reducing communication between team members

C) Promoting risky behaviors and processes

D) Allowing staff to disregard safety protocols

12 / 92

12) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

A) Offering discounts to security companies

B) The approved contractor scheme

C) A security benefits scheme for employees

D) Recruiting new security officers

13 / 92

13) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Being under the influence of alcohol

B) Attending an event with a group of friends

C) Being confident and energetic

D) Having a clear sense of direction

14 / 92

14) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

A) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

B) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

C) An individual repeatedly entering restricted areas

D) An individual who appears disoriented

15 / 92

15) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

A) Cyberattacks on computer systems.

B) The release of hazardous substances.

C) The use of firearms.

D) Theft of sensitive information.

16 / 92

16) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To prevent the suspect from self-injury

B) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

C) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

D) To question the suspect about the offense

17 / 92

17) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

A) It raises the potential for conflicts between team members

B) It promotes clear communication in challenging situations

C) It increases risks for both staff and the public

D) It reduces the need for training and oversight

18 / 92

18) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

A) A fire involving butane gas

B) A fire involving hot cooking oils

C) A fire involving petrol or paint

D) A fire involving wood or rubber

19 / 92

19) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

A) Ignoring minor incidents

B) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

C) Preventing interactions with the public

D) High-visibility patrols

20 / 92

20) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A slip on a wet floor

B) A heart attack

C) An epileptic seizure

D) A software update on a laptop

21 / 92

21) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

A) Proceed to question the individual

B) Escort the individual off the premises

C) Immediately search the individual

D) Detain the individual

22 / 92

22) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Review as little information as possible and make no preparations

B) Avoid communication with their legal representative

C) Wait until the last minute to arrive

D) Review their statement and the relevant case details

23 / 92

23) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

A) To completely disregard the incident and move on

B) To evaluate actions and reflect on an incident

C) To help them avoid discussing the incident

D) To review an incident without taking reflective action

24 / 92

24) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

A) Blocking access to all staircases

B) Ensuring everyone remains calm and follows procedure

C) Locking all entrances and exits

D) Ensuring security personnel leave first

25 / 92

25) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away, and tell authorities about the situation

B) Run home, hide from the threat, and tell others on social media

C) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment, and tell the media

D) Run to safety, hide if necessary, and report to authorities about the situation

26 / 92

26) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Regulating the security sector through licensing.

B) Providing legal counsel to industry members.

C) Offering financial assistance to security companies.

D) Training security personnel for private firms.

27 / 92

27) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

A) Unlikely but conceivable

B) Possible but unlikely

C) Nearly certain

D) Highly improbable

28 / 92

28) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

A) Search for any remaining hazards and personal belongings

B) Proceed to the assembly point

C) Check the building for any missing people

D) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated

29 / 92

29) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

B) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

C) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

D) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

30 / 92

30) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

A) Breach of contract

B) Murder

C) Burglary

D) Assault

31 / 92

31) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

A) Improving team morale

B) Preparing to use physical restraints

C) Identifying areas for personal and procedural improvement

D) Gaining a better understanding of how to escalate situations

32 / 92

32) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Fire hose

B) Water

C) Fire blanket

D) Sprinkler system

33 / 92

33) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

A) To help staff evade accountability for incidents.

B) To reduce the need to assist individual clients.

C) To effectively provide support to vulnerable individuals

D) To avoid attending required safety training.

34 / 92

34) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Work-related personal projects

B) Dress code policies

C) Employee social gatherings outside of work

D) Potential promotions within the company

35 / 92

35) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

D) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

36 / 92

36) What defines "necessary force"?

A) Force deemed acceptable based on personal judgment

B) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

C) Force permitted if it leads to a positive result

D) Force used only after all other options have been exhausted

37 / 92

37) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

A) A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark

B) A blue square with a cross

C) A red triangle containing a skull and crossbones

D) A red circle with a line through it

38 / 92

38) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

A) Effective practices

B) Financial bonuses

C) Good team-building activities

D) New opportunities for equipment

39 / 92

39) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

A) Preventing others from entering the area until it's declared safe

B) Contacting local authorities and appropriate management

C) Determining if the item displays suspicious characteristics

D) Moving everyone away from the immediate area and securing it

40 / 92

40) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

A) Assisting a lost individual

B) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

C) Raising concerns about an individual's safety

D) Ignoring an individual who does not appear vulnerable

41 / 92

41) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

A) It provides supporting evidence for actions if needed

B) It guarantees a favorable court outcome

C) It prevents involvement from local authorities

D) It ensures no one will challenge actions

42 / 92

42) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

A) Providing legal representation to businesses

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Preventing and detecting unauthorized activities

D) Managing public relations for private companies

43 / 92

43) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

A) A child who is closely supervised by their parents

B) A child engaging in age-appropriate recreational activities

C) A child playing outdoors with friends

D) A child being seen with different adults when arriving at and leaving places

44 / 92

44) When is the use of force appropriate?

A) Force can be justified based on the size or strength of the individual involved

B) Force should only be used as a last resort after careful assessment

C) Any level of force is acceptable if the security operative feels threatened

D) Using force is encouraged to maintain authority over individuals at all times

45 / 92

45) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

A) Take it slowly, let others take charge of the situation, and stay in the background

B) Be calm and only provide assistance when asked by a senior staff member

C) Stay calm and provide assistance only when asked

D) Act quickly, be authoritative, and encourage calmness in others

46 / 92

46) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

A) The crowd calmly following safety instructions

B) Panic leading to people scattering from the area

C) Crushing due to uncontrolled crowd movement

D) People freezing in place due to shock

47 / 92

47) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

A) Allocation of lunch breaks

B) Compensation and employee benefits

C) Participation in team-building activities

D) Access to company resources

48 / 92

48) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

A) Denying that there is any issue

B) Telling the customer to return later when less upset

C) Avoiding direct acknowledgment of their concerns

D) Empathizing with the customer and accepting responsibility

49 / 92

49) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

B) It removes the need to call emergency services

C) It eliminates the need for other security measures

D) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

50 / 92

50) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire extinguishers

B) The location of hazardous materials

C) The location of fire exits

D) The location of first aid kits

51 / 92

51) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

B) Always arriving on time and being well-presented

C) Exhibiting a lack of confidence and insecurity

D) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

52 / 92

52) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A manager requesting information

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A colleague seeking help with a task

D) A visitor entering the premises for the first time

53 / 92

53) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

A) It cannot record any criminal activities

B) It can only be used outdoors

C) It cannot physically stop a crime from happening

D) It can only be used indoors

54 / 92

54) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

A) Higher chance of equipment malfunction.

B) Increased vulnerability to potential aggression or violence.

C) Limited access to basic health support.

D) Difficulty in taking regular breaks.

55 / 92

55) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

A) Recount only the seemingly important parts

B) State the total number of visitors

C) Detail the progression of events leading up to it

D) List the names of all staff present

56 / 92

56) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Covertly observing people and locations to gather intelligence

B) Monitoring a public event as a licensed CCTV operator

C) Taking multiple pictures of a landmark

D) Asking security staff for directions

57 / 92

57) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

A) Organizing private gatherings within the community

B) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

C) Increasing entry fees for access control

D) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

58 / 92

58) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

A) A gas leak

B) A power outage

C) A water leak

D) A fire

59 / 92

59) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

A) Identify areas not covered by CCTV

B) Allow unrestricted access to all employees

C) Guarantee only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) Ensure CCTV is the only security measure used

60 / 92

60) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

A) Document the details and wait for the next scheduled report submission

B) Report it to the anti-terrorist hotline for immediate investigation

C) Continue observing the activity and wait for a supervisor's support

D) Directly confront the individuals to get more details

61 / 92

61) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

A) Try to administer first aid without training

B) Provide privacy to the injured person and await trained personnel

C) Leave the scene and let someone else take charge of the situation

D) Wait for the situation to worsen before calling for help

62 / 92

62) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

A) Approximately 300 meters.

B) Approximately 200 meters.

C) Approximately 100 meters.

D) Approximately 400 meters.

63 / 92

63) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

A) Sharing passwords with trusted colleagues

B) Using the same password for all accounts for easy recall

C) Enabling two-factor authentication on all accounts for extra security

D) Writing down passwords in a notebook

64 / 92

64) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

A) A higher chance of being sidetracked by non-security tasks

B) A greater chance of electrical devices malfunctioning

C) Increased vulnerability to violence or attacks

D) A higher likelihood of missing scheduled breaks or mealtimes

65 / 92

65) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

A) The weather conditions at the time of the incident

B) Any previous self-protection training they had

C) What they observed and their names

D) Their personal opinions and feelings about the incident

66 / 92

66) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

A) Clear

B) Conclusion

C) Control

D) Confirm

67 / 92

67) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

A) Only record injuries and keep a personal diary.

B) Inform a manager and record the incident.

C) Inform colleagues but only document if medical attention is required.

D) Report serious injuries only at the next safety meeting.

68 / 92

68) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

A) Confront the individual directly

B) Only report it if a crime occurs

C) Utilize the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

D) Call the transport's customer service team

69 / 92

69) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

A) Stop and search for the fire's source

B) Wait for the fire to extinguish itself

C) Sound the alarm

D) Evacuate the building immediately

70 / 92

70) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

A) Water

B) CO2 Gas

C) Wet chemical

D) Foam

71 / 92

71) How can individuals best protect their private information?

A) Browse unsafe websites but avoiding suspicious links.

B) Using the same password for all accounts for ease of recall.

C) Being cautious about sharing personal data or completing online surveys unless absolutely necessary.

D) Broadly connecting with anyone online.

72 / 92

72) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

A) Using an aggressive tone.

B) Providing written instructions.

C) Being argumentative.

D) Speaking in a calm manner.

73 / 92

73) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place, away from ignition sources

B) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near electrical equipment

C) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

D) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

74 / 92

74) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

A) Requesting assistance from the police

B) Booking a taxi for the individual

C) Guiding an individual to a nearby bar for help

D) Using local support organizations

75 / 92

75) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

A) Personal data must not be kept for longer than necessary

B) Personal data can be shared and used without consent

C) Data must be destroyed immediately after use

D) Data protection regulations do not apply to security operatives

76 / 92

76) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

A) Check the fire extinguishers

B) Sound the alarm

C) Help vulnerable people evacuate

D) Evacuate the building immediately

77 / 92

77) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

A) Contacting emergency services.

B) Investigating the cause before taking action.

C) Attempting to immediately resolve the situation.

D) Continuing normal work and leaving resolution to senior staff.

78 / 92

78) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

A) Offering aid to people in distress

B) Closely observing and tracking individuals

C) Engaging in group activities with friends

D) Guiding security towards a distressed person

79 / 92

79) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) Disposed of and logged

B) Kept confidential and withheld from the police

C) Preserved and handed over to the police

D) Photographed and then discarded

80 / 92

80) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

A) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

B) When dealing with aggressive customers

C) When managing office furniture layout

D) When planning breaks for security staff

81 / 92

81) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

A) Class D

B) Class B

C) Class F

D) Class A

82 / 92

82) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

A) To prove the security operative was present at the scene

B) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

C) To comply with legal requirements and document the incident

D) To avoid potential liability for issues

83 / 92

83) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

A) Providing employees with sufficient information about health and safety

B) Transferring all health and safety duties to employees

C) Providing health and safety training only to new employees

D) Conducting health and safety assessments only after an accident

84 / 92

84) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

A) Provide contact details for appropriate medical services

B) Report immediate threats requiring police intervention

C) Offer information on terrorism prevention training

D) Report non-urgent suspicious activities

85 / 92

85) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Writing a polite email

C) Sending a text message

D) Smiling or frowning

86 / 92

86) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual responsibility

B) It allows individuals to work in isolation

C) It fosters communication and cooperation

D) It promotes rivalry among colleagues

87 / 92

87) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking action

B) Avoid immediate action before authorities arrive

C) Allow the victim and attacker to resolve the issue independently

D) Separate the victim from the attacker

88 / 92

88) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

A) Remain inactive and wait for management's intervention.

B) Adjust the response according to the seriousness and nature of the situation.

C) Immediately escalate to the highest authority.

D) Delay action until the situation escalates further.

89 / 92

89) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By providing only vague instructions without specific details

B) By ensuring the security operative fulfills the client's requirements

C) By allowing the security operative to alter duties as they see fit

D) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

90 / 92

90) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

A) Local councils manage all cases

B) Victims of the crime always initiate legal proceedings

C) The state brings charges against individuals

D) Private individuals initiate cases in court

91 / 92

91) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

A) To reduce security visibility to the public

B) To obstruct any possible hostile reconnaissance

C) To avoid any staff interactions

D) To intimidate customers to deter suspicious activity

92 / 92

92) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

A) Oxygen, water, and carbon dioxide

B) Heat, carbon dioxide, and water

C) Oxygen, fuel, and heat

D) Water, heat, and oxygen

Your score is

The average score is 68%

Module 1D

/72

SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI

Principles of Working in the Private Security Industry -MCQ

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 1D - Principle of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 72

1) Which of the following is a key purpose of the private security industry?

A) Preventing and detecting unauthorised activities

B) Enforcing and managing legal penalties for crimes

C) Managing public relations for private companies

D) Providing legal representation to businesses

2 / 72

2) Security operatives must understand the scope of the CCTVs cover to:

A) be aware of blind spots that CCTV may not see

B) ensure CCTV is used as the sole security measure

C) make sure only high-traffic areas are recorded

D) provide unrestricted access to all employees

3 / 72

3) The main purpose of the anti-terror hotline is to:

A) provide contact details to the correct medical services

B) report threats needing urgent police action

C) provide details on terrorism prevention training

D) report non-urgent suspicious activity

4 / 72

4) Which of the following is a main feature of criminal law?

A) Private individuals bring cases to the courts

B) Local councils handle all the cases

C) The state brings the cases against individuals

D) Victims of the crime always brings the case to court

5 / 72

5) Which of the following is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

A) Recording personal observations and incidents during shifts

B) Documenting found items

C) Documenting visitor logs

D) Recording shift instructions and length of break times

6 / 72

6) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the current Health and Safety at Work etc Act?

A) Conducting health and safety assessments only when there is an accident

B) Providing health and safety training only when a new employee starts

C) Providing adequate information about health and safety to employees

D) Delegating all health and safety responsibilities to employees

7 / 72

7) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

A) Potential promotions within the company

B) Employee social gatherings outside work

C) Dress code policies

D) Work-related personal projects

8 / 72

8) What do the terms run, hide and tell signify to a security operative in the event of a terror threat?

A) Run far from the threat, hide away and tell the authorities about the situation

B) Run to the closest exit, hide under equipment and tell the media

C) Run to safety, hide if necessary and tell the authorities about the situation

D) Run home, hide from the threat and tell others on social media

9 / 72

9) An attack is described as having a low threat level when it is:

A) almost certain

B) highly unlikely

C) unlikely but possible

D) highly likely in the near future

10 / 72

10) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

A) By allowing the security operative to change their duties as they see fit

B) By providing only general instructions without specific details

C) By focusing solely on the client's customer service duties

D) By ensuring the security operative meets the client's requirements

11 / 72

11) Which of the following must be done when a security operative is preparing to present evidence in court?

A) Wait until the last minute to arrive

B) Avoid communication with their legal representative

C) Look at as little information as possible and make no preparations

D) Review their statement and the significant case details

12 / 72

12) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

A) Wait until the situation worsens before taking action

B) Take no action and wait for management to intervene

C) Escalate immediately to the highest authority

D) Respond based on the severity and nature of the situation

13 / 72

13) The alarm sounds and smoke is seen coming from a nearby room, which of the following emergencies is likely occurring?

A) Gas leak

B) Fire

C) Power failure

D) Water leak

14 / 72

14) Which of the following is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

A) Freeze and surrender

B) Walk calmly away

C) Fight or flight

D) Seek out a crowded place

15 / 72

15) In which of the following situations must effective communication be used?

A) When dealing with aggressive customers

B) When planning breaks for security staff

C) When managing the layout of furniture in the office

D) When discussing personal matters unrelated to work

16 / 72

16) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

A) To overlook the incident completely and move on

B) To assess any actions and to reflect on an incident

C) To aid them in avoiding discussions on the incident

D) To look back on an incident but take no reflective action

17 / 72

17) Which of the following describes necessary force?

A) Force that is used when other options have been exhausted

B) Force that is allowed if it results in a positive outcome

C) Force that is excessive and could cause harm

D) Force that is acceptable based on personal judgement

18 / 72

18) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

A) To stop the suspect from leaving before the police arrive

B) To question the suspect about the offence

C) To prevent the suspect from damaging property

D) To prevent the suspect from causing injury to themselves

19 / 72

19) What is the primary reason for a security operative to wear high-visibility clothing while on patrol?

A) To clearly identify them as an emergency service worker

B) To keep warm during cold weather

C) To reflect the uniform of local police services

D) To make their presence known and act as a deterrent

20 / 72

20) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

A) To ensure the injured individual receives compensation and care

B) To prove that the security operative was present at the scene

C) To follow legal requirements and document an incident

D) To avoid potential liability for any future issues

21 / 72

21) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

A) Always arriving on time and being well presented

B) Showing confidence and strong self-esteem

C) Being outgoing and planning group activities with friends

D) Displaying a lack of confidence and insecurity

22 / 72

22) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

A) Having a clear sense of direction

B) Being confident and energetic

C) Being under the influence of alcohol

D) Attending an event with a group of friends

23 / 72

23) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can help convey emotion?

A) Using hand signals to direct someone

B) Smiling or frowning

C) Sending a text message

D) Writing a polite email to someone

24 / 72

24) A main aim of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

A) Increase the number of security personnel in the industry

B) Allow unlicensed individuals to work in security

C) Remove any criminal elements from the industry

D) Reduce the involvement of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)

25 / 72

25) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

A) It may prevent certain individuals from accessing footage

B) It is accessible to the general public at any time

C) It may record individuals in areas where they expect privacy

D) It never captures sensitive information

26 / 72

26) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

A) A slip on a wet floor

B) A software update on a laptop

C) A heart attack

D) An epileptic seizure

27 / 72

27) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

A) Observing people and places to gather information

B) Speaking with security staff members to ask for directions

C) Monitoring a public event as a licenced CCTV operator

D) Taking a number of different pictures of a landmark

28 / 72

28) Which of the following is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

A) It guarantees that no incidents will occur

B) It can provide clear evidence for investigations

C) It will remove the need to call emergency services

D) It removes the need for any other security measures

29 / 72

29) Which or the following is a significant consequence that a security operative may face if they make a false arrest?

A) Verbal warning from their employer

B) Civil or criminal prosecution

C) Requirement to attend additional training

D) Temporary suspension from their job

30 / 72

30) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

A) shared on social media to raise awareness

B) reviewed by only staff member

C) accessed only by authorised personnel

D) deleted after one month

31 / 72

31) What should a security operative do if they see an individual acting suspiciously and taking photographs of a restricted area?

A) Ignore the behaviour unless they see a crime being committed

B) Confront the individual immediately and demand they delete the pictures

C) Report the activity to the control room or management

D) Immediately challenge them to prove their identity

32 / 72

32) Which of the following is a key component of an emergency plan?

A) A schedule for the next week's security patrols

B) A map of the local area's restaurants and shops

C) A detailed list of all staff personal contact numbers

D) An evacuation procedure, including assembly points

33 / 72

33) To maintain a safe environment, security operatives should inspect their equipment (e.g., radios, torches) to ensure they are:

A) fully functional and correctly maintained

B) used only by one person during a shift

C) easily concealable from the public

D) the latest model on the market

34 / 72

34) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

A) Cases of accidental slips that result in minor bruises

B) Cases of common colds among employees

C) A dangerous occurrence only if somebody was injured

D) A dangerous occurrence even if nobody was injured

35 / 72

35) Which classification of fire involves materials such as paper, wood and textiles?

A) Class D

B) Class F

C) Class A

D) Class B

36 / 72

36) When making arrests, security operatives:

A) can detain individuals until they confess

B) can arrest anyone suspected of any offence

C) have the same powers of arrest as police officers

D) have no special powers of arrest

37 / 72

37) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

A) The location of fire wardens

B) The location of first aid kits

C) The location of fire extinguishers

D) The location of hazardous materials

38 / 72

38) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

A) Entertainment websites and apps

B) Online gaming forums

C) Social media platforms

D) Colleagues and management

39 / 72

39) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

A) Start a search for the source of the fire

B) Check the building for the fire's location

C) Wait by the exit until everyone has evacuated the building

D) Proceed to the assembly point

40 / 72

40) Which of the following is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

A) Limiting the number of security contractors in the market

B) Raising performance standards within the private security industry

C) Allowing security companies to operate without regulation

D) Reducing the need for customer service in security roles

41 / 72

41) Which of the following roles requires an up to date license under the current Private Security Act?

A) Delivery driver

B) Office receptionist

C) Private Investigator

D) Manned Guarding

42 / 72

42) When dealing with an upset customer, which of the following actions helps resolve the situation?

A) Put yourself in the customers position and accept responsibility

B) Avoid directly acknowledging their concerns

C) Tell the customer to come back later when they are less upset

D) Deny that there is any issue at all

43 / 72

43) Which of the following is not an example of duty of care?

A) Ensuring everyone's safety, regardless of vulnerability

B) Assisting an individual who seems lost

C) Raising concerns regarding an individual's safety

D) Neglecting an individual as they do not appear vulnerable

44 / 72

44) Which of the following is the correct way to explain how an incident unravelled in a report?

A) Describe the different stages leading up to it

B) List the names of staff present

C) State the total number of visitors

D) Recount only the parts that seem important

45 / 72

45) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

A) preserved and handed to the police

B) photographed and then discarded

C) disposed of and noted in a written logbook

D) kept confidential and withheld from the police

46 / 72

46) When interacting with a police officer, a security operative must always:

A) offer personal opinions on the legal matter

B) demand the police officer show their identification immediately

C) allow the police officer to take control of the situation

D) refuse to hand over any evidence

47 / 72

47) How does accurate record-keeping help in a legal situation?

A) It guarantees that no one will challenge actions

B) It ensures a favourable outcome in court

C) It prevents any involvement from local authorities

D) It provides evidence to support actions if needed

48 / 72

48) What is the second step to take when making a citizen's arrest?

A) Contact the police

B) Proceed to question the individual

C) Detain the individual

D) Immediately perform a search

49 / 72

49) What elements must be present for a fire to exist?

A) Oxygen, water and carbon dioxide

B) Oxygen, fuel and heat

C) Water, heat and oxygen

D) Heat, carbon dioxide and water

50 / 72

50) Upon discovering a fire, what is the first action that must be taken?

A) Evacuate the building immediately

B) Sound the alarm

C) Wait for the fire to burn out

D) Start a search for the source of the fire

51 / 72

51) Which of the following is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

A) Reduced number of security staff needed

B) Increased individual recognition

C) Increased competition among colleagues

D) Promotes safety for both staff and the public

52 / 72

52) Which of the following is a key element in deterring anti-social behaviour?

A) High-profile patrols

B) Preventing interactions with the public

C) Avoiding any confrontation with wrongdoers

D) Neglecting minor incidents

53 / 72

53) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

A) Only report accidents with serious injuries at the next safety meeting

B) Inform a manager and log the incident

C) Only document injuries and keep a diary of events

D) Inform colleagues but do not document it unless medical attention is needed

54 / 72

54) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

A) Giving legal advice to members within the industry

B) Regulating the security industry through licensing

C) Training security staff for private companies

D) Offering financial support to security contractors

55 / 72

55) Which of the following is an indicator of predatory behaviour?

A) Directing a security to a distressed individual

B) Taking part in group activities with friends

C) Clearly observing and monitoring individuals

D) Offering assistance and help to people in distress

56 / 72

56) Which of the following behaviours suggests suspicious activity?

A) An individual who appears unsure of their surroundings

B) A group of people having a picnic in a public park

C) An individual walking a dog near a restricted area

D) An individual consistently entering restricted areas

57 / 72

57) Which of the following is a basic principle of evacuation?

A) Making sure everyone stays calm and follows procedure

B) Blocking access to all staircases

C) Making sure security personnel leave first

D) Locking all entrances and exits

58 / 72

58) Which of the following is an example of an internal customer for a security company working at a venue?

A) An employee of the venue

B) A delivery driver making a drop-off

C) A member of the public attending an event

D) A window cleaner contracted by the venue

59 / 72

59) What firefighting equipment must be used for small kitchen fires, like a clothing fire or a pan fire?

A) Water

B) Fire hose

C) Sprinkler system

D) Fire blanket

60 / 72

60) Which of the following is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

A) It increases individual accountability

B) It promotes communication and collaboration

C) It encourages competition amongst colleagues

D) It enables individuals to work independently

61 / 72

61) Which of the following must a security operative follow while on duty?

A) Customer wishes and demands

B) SIA standards and the company's values

C) Instructions from colleagues

D) Personal preferences in handling situations

62 / 72

62) Evaluating security incidents is key to recognising:

A) financial bonuses

B) good practices

C) new opportunities for equipment

D) good team building activities

63 / 72

63) Which of the following describes the purpose of ACT online reporting?

A) To report suspicious activity related to terrorism

B) To report lost goods to Law Enforcement

C) To submit suggestions regarding customer service

D) To submit criticism against security personnel

64 / 72

64) Which of the following must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

A) Notify the victim's family before taking any action

B) Allow the victim and the attacker to resolve the issue

C) Separate the victim from the attacker

D) Avoid taking immediate action before authorities arrive

65 / 72

65) Which of the following is the definition of a workplace hazard?

A) A source that could lead to reduced focus on a person or other people

B) An element that could lead to occasional distractions during work

C) An environmental factor that could occasionally disrupt operations

D) A potential source of harm or adverse health effect on a person or other people

66 / 72

66) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

A) Locking flammables away in a cool, dry place away from ignition sources

B) Storing flammables in open containers near a heating source for easy access

C) Storing flammables in a well-ventilated area with direct sunlight

D) Keeping flammables in a locked cupboard near the electrical equipment

67 / 72

67) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can effectively improve security for security operatives?

A) Organising private gatherings within the community

B) Establishing radio links with nearby venues

C) Increasing the use of entry fees for access control

D) Limiting the number of security staff on duty

68 / 72

68) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

A) Speaking calmly

B) Being confrontational

C) Speaking in a aggressive tone

D) Writing down instructions

69 / 72

69) Which of the following is an appropriate response when witnessing suspicious behaviour on public transport?

A) Call the transport's customer service team

B) Use the 'See it, Say it, Sorted' initiative

C) Confront the individual directly

D) Only report it if a crime takes place

70 / 72

70) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

A) A visitor entering the venue for the first time

B) A team member needing assistance with a report

C) A colleague asking for help with a task

D) A manager requesting information

71 / 72

71) Which of the following is not one of the 4 Cs?

A) Control

B) Clear

C) Confirm

D) Conclusion

72 / 72

72) What does the term arrest mean?

A) To escort someone to safety

B) To question someone about a crime

C) To inform someone of their rights

D) To take away someone's liberty

Your score is

The average score is 48%

Module 2

/60

SO Module 2

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 2" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 60

1) Information on who security officers should allow onto a site can be found in the:

A) admissions policy

B) fire policy

C) health and safety policy

D) entrance book

2 / 60

2) When managing queues, it is important to assess what?

A) Customer height

B) Customer religion

C) Customer age

D) Customer behaviour

3 / 60

3) Which of the following is not an example of illegal drugs litter?

A) Burnt spoons

B) Empty beer cans

C) Discarded needles

D) Scorched tinfoil

4 / 60

4) When operating an external automated security barrier, a security officer should ensure that:

A) only one vehicle enters or exits the site when the barrier is raised.

B) only cars enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

C) only emergency vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

D) only staff vehicles enter or exit the site when the barrier is raised.

5 / 60

5) A customer approaches the front door and has enlarged pupils and rapid jaw movement; this is a potential indicator that they are under the influence of:

A) Marijuana

B) Alcohol

C) Ecstasy

D) LSD

6 / 60

6) On finding some damage on the site during a patrol, who should you report it to initially?

A) The control room

B) The site owner

C) The accounts department

D) The health and safety team

7 / 60

7) While on duty, a security officer can get assistance, guidance and emergency support from:

A) human resources

B) other staff from the organisation

C) the security manager's office during office hours

D) the security control room

8 / 60

8) While searching the interior of a vehicle, you will not be required to search:

A) under the seats

B) in door pockets

C) under the carpets

D) the exhaust pipe

9 / 60

9) Having a good method of entry control will ensure that:

A) health and safety risks are recorded

B) managers can check who is working on the site

C) staff are thoroughly searched when entering

D) visitors' identification is properly checked before entry

10 / 60

10) If a customer or member of the public sustains a minor injury during a vehicle search, your first action should be to contact:

A) the site owner

B) your line manager

C) the police

D) a first-aider

11 / 60

11) How would you spell the word CAT using the phonetic alphabet?

A) Charlie, Alpha, Tango

B) Charlie, Alpha, Toga

C) Charlie, Apple, Tango

D) Cat, Apple, Tunisia

12 / 60

12) The most important reason for crime scenes to be preserved is to:

A) keep the site clean

B) make arrests

C) help the ambulance service

D) help identify offenders

13 / 60

13) Metal detectors in search areas are mainly used to prevent the entry of

A) alcohol

B) drugs

C) mobile phones

D) weapons

14 / 60

14) What are the 2 telephone numbers you can use to call the emergency services on?

A) 100 and 112

B) 999 and 112

C) 999 and 211

D) 999 and 100

15 / 60

15) Which of the following statements describes best practice when carrying out searches?

A) Anyone can be searched on entry to a site

B) Force can be used if a search is refused

C) Authorisation by a supervisor must be granted before any search begins

D) Permission by the subject must always be given before a search

16 / 60

16) Retail security most likely involves the protection of:

A) government buildings

B) businesses

C) management

D) licensed premises

17 / 60

17) Following an arrest by a security officer, the next action should be to call the:

A) site owner

B) police

C) local press

D) security company

18 / 60

18) Following a serious incident and to preserve evidence, access to a crime scene should be what?

A) Restricted

B) Open to the public

C) Unrestricted

D) Photographed

19 / 60

19) What should a security officer do immediately on activation of a fire alarm?

A) Silence the alarm while they investigate

B) Implement full evacuation of the site

C) Ignore it until confirmed as genuine

D) Check the control panel for the location

20 / 60

20) It is important to check the identification documents of all visitors to:

A) comply with council regulations

B) prevent unauthorised access

C) allow access for statutory agencies

D) check the age of everyone entering

21 / 60

21) On activation of a fire alarm, what should a security officer working on access control do?

A) Open any entry/exit barriers and monitor them

B) Go and look for the area on fire

C) Leave their post and go to the assembly point

D) Do nothing until the alarm is confirmed as genuine

22 / 60

22) Which of the following would be considered a type of security technology?

A) A swipe card door access key

B) Speed ramps on the approach road

C) Steel grills on windows

D) security guard at barrier control

23 / 60

23) Check calls contribute to a security officer's:

A) efficiency

B) safety

C) time-keeping

D) conduct

24 / 60

24) The most effective way to safely dispose of a needle is to put it in:

A) a sharps box

B) newspaper, wrapped up

C) the waste bin

D) a bottle

25 / 60

25) Ignoring your personal safety during a conflict situation will most likely:

A) reduce the need for reports

B) increase the risk of escalation

C) decrease the risk of escalation

D) increase the need for extra staff

26 / 60

26) In addition to physical harm, physical interventions are most likely to cause:

A) job loss

B) marriage problems

C) vehicle accidents

D) work-related stress

27 / 60

27) Which of the following incidents would require a call to the emergency services?

A) A leaking tap

B) A fire

C) A check-call

D) A trip or fall

28 / 60

28) From the following, what skill can help you during a conflict situation?

A) Active listening

B) Authoritative speech

C) Positive talking

D) Negative communication

29 / 60

29) A fire alarm system can assist a security officer by:

A) alerting officers to intruders

B) showing evacuation routes

C) informing the ambulance service

D) alerting officers to incidents

30 / 60

30) Positional asphyxia is most likely to be caused by:

A) restraint on the ground

B) contact with non-weapon items

C) an arm hold

D) strikes and kicks

31 / 60

31) An example of a physical protection system to help prevent article theft is an electronic article surveillance (EAS) device. These are more commonly known as:

A) triggers

B) buzzers

C) bugs

D) tags

32 / 60

32) The use of CCTV in search areas will most likely prevent.

A) drugs contamination

B) malicious allegations

C) needle-stick injuries

D) criminal damage

33 / 60

33) Which of the following best describes the main responsibility of a security officer?

A) Guarding premises against unauthorised access

B) Preventing waste of the organisation's materials

C) Attracting more clients for the organisation

D) Ensuring the site is monitored 24 hours a day

34 / 60

34) You can increase your personal safety at work by:

A) staying alert

B) taking longer breaks drinking plenty of coffee staying alert

C) noting pocketbook entries

D) drinking plenty of coffee

35 / 60

35) Properly maintained protection systems are less likely to:

A) function correctly

B) require software updates

C) require servicing

D) malfunction

36 / 60

36) While completing patrols, you should stay in contact with:

A) the site owner

B) the police

C) the control room

D) the health and safety team

37 / 60

37) Which of the following are not items of personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A) Personal alarms

B) Metal detectors

C) Body-worn cameras

D) Pocketbooks

38 / 60

38) A security officer would secure any unauthorised items found during a search by following:

A) police guidelines

B) a supervisor's instructions

C) the assignment instructions

D) the advice of colleagues

39 / 60

39) Reflecting on personal safety experiences will most likely:

A) lead to the recruitment of more staff

B) cause a change in procedures

C) make you safer

D) keep supervisors happy

40 / 60

40) Search records help prove that searches have been carried out:

A) inappropriately

B) by the police

C) with a search warrant

D) lawfully

41 / 60

41) In all conflict situations, security officers need to carry out ongoing:

A) injury surveys

B) risk surveys

C) accident report book

D) risk assessments aggravation assessments

42 / 60

42) The main purpose of a final patrol is to:

A) comply with the supervisor's instructions

B) ensure no problems exist for the next officer on duty

C) identify serious problems throughout the shift

D) prevent criminals from predicting when security is present

43 / 60

43) Keeping your knowledge and skills up to date will most likely:

A) ensure you comply with your contract

B) decrease your efficiency

C) reduce risks to your personal safety

D) increase the risk to your personal safety

44 / 60

44) Security officer patrols carried out at the start of the shift are called:

A) primary patrols

B) interim patrols

C) general patrols

D) initial patrols

45 / 60

45) What pro-word means 'my message ends, please reply?

A) Repeat

B) Wait

C) Over

D) Out

46 / 60

46) Body-worn cameras (BWC) are not used to:

A) protects against false allegations

B) record incidents for social media

C) identify offenders

D) gather evidence of crimes

47 / 60

47) What is the main risk with a needle-stick injury?

A) Infectious diseases

B) Bleeding

C) Sickness

D) Pain

48 / 60

48) Safety is the responsibility of:

A) everyone

B) employers only

C) health and safety personnel

D) employees only

49 / 60

49) Pre-entry checks are carried out on a site before it opens to:

A) ensure the site is safe

B) comply with building regulations

C) comply with council policy

D) ensure the site is clean

50 / 60

50) Snap patrols carried out during a shift are made as the result of a specific what?

A) Incident

B) Complaint

C) Rumour

D) Request

51 / 60

51) During incidents, dynamic risk assessments help to:

A) prevent prosecution

B) prevent crimes

C) keep everyone safe

D) only keep yourself safe

52 / 60

52) Which of the following is not a statutory agency employee?

A) A health and safety inspector

B) A police officer

C) A fire officer

D) A national health service employee

53 / 60

53) Using personal protective equipment (PPE) correctly will:

A) protect you from harm

B) make your job easier

C) make you comfortable

D) save you time

54 / 60

54) If a visitor refuses to be searched at the access point to a site the security officer should:

A) refuse entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

B) refuse entry and report the matter to the police

C) allow entry and report the matter to the visitor's contact

D) arrest the visitor for refusing to be searched

55 / 60

55) Security officers should only use physical interventions if they:

A) are martial arts experts

B) have authority from the police

C) are trained

D) do not have backup

56 / 60

56) A feature of security systems is that they:

A) detect external interference

B) measure the number of pedestrians entering a site

C) record customer preferences in a retail shop

D) identify the type of vehicles entering a site

57 / 60

57) Which of the following is an example of a general search?

A) Searches carried out during daylight hours only

B) Only males are searched

C) Searches carried out only at night

D) Everyone is searched

58 / 60

58) Which types of people are most likely to put your personal safety at greater risk?

A) Lone individuals

B) Young people

C) Intoxicated people

D) Elderly people

59 / 60

59) If a member of staff refuses to be searched on exit, a security officer should:

A) take them to a separate room and search them anyway

B) allow them to exit and take no further action

C) remove their personal property and allow them to leave

D) tell them that it is a breach of their contract and record all details

60 / 60

60) Which of the following requests for access should make a security officer suspicious?

A) An appointment that has been notified to security

B) No appointment confirmed and no known contact

C) No appointment confirmed but with a named contact

D) An appointment confirmed with a named contact

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 3

/50

SO Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "SO Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

NameEmail

1 / 50

1) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

A) Motivated

B) Capable

C) Patronised

D) Assertive

2 / 50

2) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

A) The Local Council

B) The Victim Support Scheme

C) The lead security operative

D) The manager

3 / 50

3) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

A) You cannot guarantee victory

B) For the safety of yourself and others

C) You might be fired from your workplace

D) The customer might bring his friends

4 / 50

4) Empathy means being able to:

A) Understand another person’s point of view

B) Ignore someone else's opinion

C) Share someone else's opinion

D) Encourage another person’s perception

5 / 50

5) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

A) The outcome is successful

B) Any direction given are followed

C) Your opinion is heard

D) They complain to management

6 / 50

6) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

A) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

B) It allows the customer to dictate the situation

C) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

D) Customers are constantly on the lookout for better deals

7 / 50

7) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

A) Dodging eye contact

B) gesturing with open palms

C) only paying partial attention to the other person

D) Facing the other person directly

8 / 50

8) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

A) Displaying empathy to show you understand to other person

B) Explaining the potential outcomes behaviour continuing

C) Being threatening

D) Being assertive

9 / 50

9) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

A) Assertiveness

B) Frustration

C) Awareness

D) Empathy

10 / 50

10) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

A) Insulted

B) Appreciated

C) Нарру

D) Comfortable

11 / 50

11) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

A) Being rude

B) Fear of retaliation

C) Fighting back

D) Ignoring the legal consequences

12 / 50

12) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

A) Bully at them and tell jokes

B) Begin to use abusive personal language

C) Prohibit from talking and ignores all conversation

D) Stand further away from the employee

13 / 50

13) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

A) Compromised

B) A win-win

C) Empathic

D) A spin-off

14 / 50

14) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

A) Take one to another room to separate them

B) Ignore them to sort it out themselves

C) Threaten to call the police

D) Force to stop an argument

15 / 50

15) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

A) might avoid injury

B) May get disciplined

C) Will ignore being disciplined

D) Will still do a nice job

16 / 50

16) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

A) Suitable

B) Reasonable

C) Mandatory

D) Minimal

17 / 50

17) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

A) Mandatory

B) Approachable

C) Reasonable

D) Less

18 / 50

18) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

A) Conflict will be reduced as the customer feels more comfortable

B) The customer will be unresponsive to efforts to pacify them

C) The conflict will remain unresolved

D) The customer will lose their patience with the employee

19 / 50

19) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

A) There is no connection between attitude and behaviour

B) Positive attitudes built negative behaviour

C) Positive attitudes construct positive behaviour

D) Assertive attitudes construct assertive behaviour

20 / 50

20) Peer pressure is an example of a:

A) Psychological barrier

B) Political barrier

C) Physical barrier

D) Social barrier

21 / 50

21) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

A) Help take the heat out of the situation and allow rational problem solving

B) Prevent other customers from getting involved in the conflict situation

C) Guarantee that security staff are able to manage the situation until police arrives

D) Divert the customer's attention while other security colleagues prepare to arrest them

22 / 50

22) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

A) Motivation

B) Stimulus

C) Recognition

D) Humiliation

23 / 50

23) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

A) Loss of your employment

B) Have your driver's license suspended

C) The customer departing

D) An argument

24 / 50

24) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

A) Will continue to perform well

B) Can ignore injury

C) Will avoid being disciplined

D) May get disciplined

25 / 50

25) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

A) Explain that you are an employee also and have no authority

B) Actively listen and suggest getting management involved

C) Tell them to put their concerns in writing before taking it further

D) Recommend to contact the head office when they have calmed down

26 / 50

26) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

A) Secure the backing and teamwork of as many coworkers as possible

B) Ensure that appropriate training has been received before using physical force

C) Exert all available force

D) Kick the customer out without warning

27 / 50

27) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

A) Making the customer feel like they don't matter

B) Being bossy towards the customer

C) Showing empathy towards the customer

D) By criticising the actions of the customer

28 / 50

28) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

A) Various clothes

B) Different eye colour

C) Diverse hair colour

D) Different cultures

29 / 50

29) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

A) 'I need that bag to make search it.

B) 'I am supposed to search that bag’

C) 'I hope you are not thinking about refusing a search

D) 'Excuse me, but may I search your bag?’

30 / 50

30) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

A) Irrational and emotional

B) Rational and emotional

C) Rational and social

D) Rational and psychological

31 / 50

31) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

A) Not listening to the customer

B) Being assertive towards the customer

C) Advising to the customer

D) Speaking to the customer seriously

32 / 50

32) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

A) Speak quickly

B) Speak calmly

C) Speak aggressively

D) Speak loudly

33 / 50

33) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

A) It empowers the customer to take charge

B) Blocking the customer’s exit might make them feel threatened

C) An available exit path will make the customer comply with instructions

D) Customers skip away when given the opportunity

34 / 50

34) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

A) Make a positive impression on your manager

B) To pick up trends

C) To get increase in salary

D) To get a promotion

35 / 50

35) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

A) to collect evidence required to prosecute everyone involved in the incident

B) to improve the way that similar situation are handled in the future

C) to assess whether management instructions were followed when dealing with the incident

D) to make certain that the company follows all applicable health and safety laws

36 / 50

36) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

A) Assertiveness

B) Patience

C) Violence

D) Frustration

37 / 50

37) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

A) Employers offering formal support are at a reduced risk of facing legal prosecution

B) receiving official assistance will prevent the individual from talking about the incident with coworkers

C) they may be traumatized and suffering from complex emotional reactions

D) giving support to victims of workpace violence is a requirement of health and safety legislation

38 / 50

38) A frequent cause of aggression is:

A) Shocked

B) Treated like a valued guest

C) Loses face

D) Made to feel welcome

39 / 50

39) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

A) Angry

B) Motivated

C) Empowered

D) Optimistic

40 / 50

40) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

A) The unhappy person feels calmer because they feel that the security operative understand their concerns and is going to help

B) The security operative has the chance to demonstrate their comprehension of the other person's issues

C) The security operative can provide the dissatisfied individual with precisely what they desired, resulting in everyone's satisfaction

D) The person who is unhappy is left with the impression that the security operative has worked hard to resolve the problem

41 / 50

41) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

A) Hold until the employee moves

B) Tell the manager

C) Try to force their way past the employee

D) Try to talk their way out of the situation

42 / 50

42) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

A) Being unsure of what action is take

B) Having strong personal values

C) Feeling self-assured and a sense of accomplishment

D) Having consumed an excessive amount of alcohol

43 / 50

43) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

A) Child Line

B) Samaritans

C) Victim Support

D) Crime Stoppers

44 / 50

44) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

A) Not providing relevant information

B) Being kept waiting

C) Being fearful of the consequences

D) Being disregarded

45 / 50

45) A strategy of an exit is used for;

A) A reason to skip problems and letting colleagues deal with them

B) A reason to involve the manager in every conflict situation

C) A reason to escalate sales by locking venue doors

D) A pre-planned reason to get away from a conflict situation

46 / 50

46) What are the most common causes of conflict?

A) Poor communication

B) Persuasive communication

C) Concise communication

D) Effective communication

47 / 50

47) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

A) Develop a rapport with the customer

B) Ensure that the customer complies with the instructions

C) Use aggressive body language to reinforce the argument

D) Note down the instructions

48 / 50

48) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

A) It minimizes the chances of a risk

B) It proves to the HSE that the organisation is doing things properly

C) It will encourage a higher number of customers to visit the premises

D) It eliminates the likelihood of a hazard

49 / 50

49) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

A) Their thought processes become more logical

B) Their heartbeat decelerates

C) Their hearing tunes into the threat

D) Their ability to perform complex physical tasks is increased

50 / 50

50) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

A) Seeking the help of a colleague to mediate a conflict or dispute

B) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

C) Paying close attention to what the other person is saying and showing empathy for their situation

D) Explaining company procedures to the unhappy person so that they understand why you cannot help them

Your score is

The average score is 67%

Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

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Module 1A

Module 1B

Module 1C

Module 1D

Module 2

Module 3

Quick Links

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