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Door Supervisor Mock Test

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Module 1A

/100

Module 1A - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1A - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

1 / 100

1) When there's an urgent situation, some individuals might not want to go. This is known as:

2 / 100

2) What should you do after a small accident happens at work?

3 / 100

3) The private security industry primarily exists to safeguard:

4 / 100

4) What does the term "arrest" mean?

5 / 100

5) The aim of establishing effective evacuation procedures is to:

6 / 100

6) Security operatives must look after vulnerable people in order to:

7 / 100

7) Which of the following is a non-criminal case?

8 / 100

8) The security operator must write down clear and thorough notes about what happened.

9 / 100

9) Assignment instructions give you directions on what to do.

10 / 100

10) What is a typical human response when faced with an immediate threat or emergency?

11 / 100

11) Which of the following roles is not considered a licensed security role?

12 / 100

12) Prohibition signs are:

13 / 100

13) A benefit of good teamwork is that it:

14 / 100

14) Which of the following is performed on a daily basis?

15 / 100

15) The probability of a fire occurring is likely decreased by:

16 / 100

16) As per the behavioral standards established by the Security Industry Authority (SIA), a security operative is required to:

17 / 100

17) The most important explanation of 'run, hide, and tell' for a security worker is to get away.

18 / 100

18) Which of the following is the best definition of an ‘occurrence’?

19 / 100

19) Which of the following is a guiding principle of the Data Protection Act 2018?

20 / 100

20) Which of the following is not likely to be completing by a security operative?

21 / 100

21) Somebody shrugging their shoulders is an example of:

22 / 100

22) What is the initial step in creating a 5-part statement?

23 / 100

23) What is the full form of AI?

24 / 100

24) What is the kind of permanent setup that has pipes with heads that turn on to stop a fire and keep it from spreading?

25 / 100

25) What is a limitation of CCTV?

26 / 100

26) When someone with disabilities asks for help, it's important to follow the company rules because:

27 / 100

27) An indicator of possible abuse is:

28 / 100

28) In a crisis, people may get scared and rush toward tight exits. This is likely to lead to:

29 / 100

29) What is a critical factor in managing crowd control during an emergency?

30 / 100

30) Non-verbal communication can involve:

31 / 100

31) Which of the following are common sources of post-incident support for security staff?

32 / 100

32) If a suspicious package is discovered, the initial response that should be undertaken is to:

33 / 100

33) When you go to court to share information, the most vital thing is that you are:

34 / 100

34) What is the abbreviation ABH short for?

35 / 100

35) What are the key things to keep in mind when dealing with customer needs?

36 / 100

36) What are the three factors of the fire triangle?

37 / 100

37) It is important for an employee to discuss with colleagues how an incident was successfully resolved as:

38 / 100

38) After someone is arrested, the proof should be:

39 / 100

39) Signs of suspicious activity may be indicated by:

40 / 100

40) What element from the following can be eliminated to disrupt the fire triangle?

41 / 100

41) Upon detecting a fire, the initial step a security operative should take is to:

42 / 100

42) The goal of assignment instructions is to offer:

43 / 100

43) What is a key benefit of teamwork in the private security industry?

44 / 100

44) Among these options, what is not a good enough reason to arrest someone?

45 / 100

45) Who should a security officer call first for a small first-aid problem?

46 / 100

46) A danger of working alone in the private security field is:

47 / 100

47) According to the Health and Safety at Work Act 1974, all premises should be:

48 / 100

48) A workplace danger is probably:

49 / 100

49) A job done by a fire marshal is:

50 / 100

50) To make sure private information stays safe, a security worker needs to:

51 / 100

51) A main objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

52 / 100

52) The most accurate definition of the threat level 'substantial' is that an attack is:

53 / 100

53) The right way to make an arrest is to:

54 / 100

54) What is a drawback or constraint associated with Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV)?

55 / 100

55) From the following, the best method of deterring anti – social behaviour is to carry out:

56 / 100

56) The key thing in a fire procedure that security staff should be aware of is:

57 / 100

57) What is the first action that a security operative should take upon discovering a fire?

58 / 100

58) What is the purpose of ACT online reporting?

59 / 100

59) What are the three things needed for a fire to happen?

60 / 100

60) The most likely consequence of invacuation is that:

61 / 100

61) A case of verbal communication can be exemplified by:

62 / 100

62) Seeking assistance and support in the aftermath of an incident is essential

63 / 100

63) A fire involving burning petrol would be categorized as what type of fire?

64 / 100

64) An employee should think about conflicts in order to:

65 / 100

65) What is the meaning of the word "theft"?

66 / 100

66) One of the guiding principles of providing excellent customer service is to:

67 / 100

67) The best thing about communicating well while taking care of customers is that it:

68 / 100

68) If a suspicious package is discovered, the first action that should be taken is to:

69 / 100

69) If someone requires treatment for a minor injury, a security operative should first contact:

70 / 100

70) What are the reasons for security operatives having a clear understanding of fire evacuation procedures?

71 / 100

71) Why should we only make an arrest when there's no other option left?

72 / 100

72) The duty of verifying that an area is free from obstructions during a fire alarm lies with:

73 / 100

73) If something is proven to be suspicious, a security worker must:

74 / 100

74) What are some of the ways that sexual predators may behave?

75 / 100

75) Which of the following is an outcome of equal opportunities legislation in the workplace?

76 / 100

76) According to the SIA’s standards for behaviour for security operatives’, a security operative should be:

77 / 100

77) What kind of arrest can a security worker perform?

78 / 100

78) Which of these things would be considered an urgent situation?

79 / 100

79) A situation that is right away dangerous to life or property is called:

80 / 100

80) During a security alert, a security operative may be required to:

81 / 100

81) If a security operative is made aware of a vulnerable female following a domestic argument, the most appropriate action to take is to contact:

82 / 100

82) The primary job of the Security Industry Authority (SIA) is to:

83 / 100

83) One of the primary motivations for documenting notes during or shortly after an incident is due to:

84 / 100

84) If there is a security danger, a security officer should:

85 / 100

85) What is an instance of a workplace hazard?

86 / 100

86) A key objective of the Private Security Industry Act 2001 is to:

87 / 100

87) What color shade of a sign indicate safe conditions?

88 / 100

88) What is most likely an indicator of suspicious activity?

89 / 100

89) One goal of the Private Security Industry Act is to:

90 / 100

90) Following involvement in a violent incident, it would be most advantageous for a staff member to seek support by:

91 / 100

91) A security officer who is making an arrest is using the authority described in:

92 / 100

92) What is the preferred ink color for record keeping?

93 / 100

93) Which of the following behaviours is most likely to indicate a sexual predator?

94 / 100

94) If someone is lying on the ground and looks like they touched an electrical cable while unconscious, the first thing to do is:

95 / 100

95) What are the risks faced by working alone?

96 / 100

96) Which of the following is an approach that does not contribute to keeping personal information secure?"

97 / 100

97) For a security operative, the most appropriate interpretation of the term 'run, hide, and tell' is to evacuate:

98 / 100

98) Marauding terror attacks include the use of:

99 / 100

99) Which of the following is an element that does not pose a risk in the context of working alone?

100 / 100

100) The 1974 Health and Safety at Work Act is for:

Your score is

The average score is 73%

0%

Module 1B

/100

DS Module 1B - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1B - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

1 / 100

1) What is a key purpose of the private security industry?

2 / 100

2) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

3 / 100

3) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must take?

4 / 100

4) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

5 / 100

5) What is the first action to take to ensure safety in the event of a critical incident?

6 / 100

6) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

7 / 100

7) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure the footage is:

8 / 100

8) What is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

9 / 100

9) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

10 / 100

10) What is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

11 / 100

11) What does the term "arrest" signify?

12 / 100

12) When is an attack described as having a low threat level?

13 / 100

13) What do "run, hide, and tell" mean for a security operative during a terror threat?

14 / 100

14) What action is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

15 / 100

15) How does accurate record-keeping benefit a legal situation?

16 / 100

16) Which option exemplifies a community safety program that benefits security personnel?

17 / 100

17) How can you effectively calm an upset customer?

18 / 100

18) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behavior?

19 / 100

19) What is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

20 / 100

20) What is the purpose of the ACT online reporting system?

21 / 100

21) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

22 / 100

22) What is a limitation of using CCTV systems?

23 / 100

23) After making an arrest, what must be done with evidence?

24 / 100

24) Which of the following is an example of reassuring verbal communication in a workplace?

25 / 100

25) What is an advantage of teamwork for security operatives aiming to improve their practices?

26 / 100

26) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

27 / 100

27) What is the correct definition of a hazard in the workplace?

28 / 100

28) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

29 / 100

29) In emergency terms, which of the following is considered an accident?

30 / 100

30) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

31 / 100

31) What does a chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear (CBRN) attack include?

32 / 100

32) What defines "necessary force"?

33 / 100

33) How can fire safety be ensured when storing flammable materials?

34 / 100

34) What is a key function of a notebook for a security operative?

35 / 100

35) In an emergency situation, how does a security operative apply a graduated response?

36 / 100

36) Which of the following is a main function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

37 / 100

37) What is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

38 / 100

38) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

39 / 100

39) Which of the following methods is useful in keeping personal information safe?

40 / 100

40) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

41 / 100

41) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

42 / 100

42) What is a key factor in discouraging anti-social behavior?

43 / 100

43) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do?

44 / 100

44) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

45 / 100

45) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behavior?

46 / 100

46) Which of the following qualities is essential for security operatives to be effective?

47 / 100

47) Which of the following would help a customer who is struggling to understand directions in a venue?

48 / 100

48) According to current RIDDOR regulations, which of the following must be reported?

49 / 100

49) What is a limitation of CCTV for a security operative?

50 / 100

50) Upon discovering a fire, what is the very first step that must be taken?

51 / 100

51) Which of the following roles requires a license under the Private Security Act?

52 / 100

52) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

53 / 100

53) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys emotion?

54 / 100

54) Which of the following factors is NOT an indicator of abuse?

55 / 100

55) What is the purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline?

56 / 100

56) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

57 / 100

57) Which of the following is a main characteristic of criminal law?

58 / 100

58) When faced with an immediate threat or emergency, what is a common human reaction?

59 / 100

59) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

60 / 100

60) Which of the following is an employer's responsibility under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act?

61 / 100

61) Once a building has been evacuated, what is the next step for a fire marshal?

62 / 100

62) What does the term "arrest" generally mean?

63 / 100

63) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally to everyone?

64 / 100

64) What is the appropriate action to take when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

65 / 100

65) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

66 / 100

66) What is a significant consequence a security operative may face for making a false arrest?

67 / 100

67) Which of the following is a common behavior of sexual predators?

68 / 100

68) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

69 / 100

69) What is a main advantage of teamwork for security operatives?

70 / 100

70) Why must security operatives record details of injuries in the accident book?

71 / 100

71) What are typical sources of support for security staff after a traumatic incident?

72 / 100

72) What is a significant advantage of using CCTV in a security role?

73 / 100

73) What is the main purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

74 / 100

74) When making arrests, security officers:

75 / 100

75) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

76 / 100

76) Which behavior indicates suspicious activity?

77 / 100

77) What is a significant risk of lone working?

78 / 100

78) What is a key principle of customer service?

79 / 100

79) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

80 / 100

80) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

81 / 100

81) What standards must a security operative follow while on duty?

82 / 100

82) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

83 / 100

83) In what type of situations is clear and effective communication essential?

84 / 100

84) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

85 / 100

85) How can access to support help security operatives after an incident?

86 / 100

86) What is an outcome of the current Private Security Industry Act?

87 / 100

87) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

88 / 100

88) Why is it crucial for security operatives to be aware of current safety initiatives?

89 / 100

89) Which of the following situations is regulated by equal opportunities legislation?

90 / 100

90) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn?

91 / 100

91) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

92 / 100

92) What describes a critical threat level?

93 / 100

93) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

94 / 100

94) What is a primary goal of the Private Security Industry Act 2001?

95 / 100

95) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

96 / 100

96) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

97 / 100

97) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

98 / 100

98) Which of the following is a potential sign that an individual is experiencing abuse?

99 / 100

99) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

100 / 100

100) What is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

Your score is

The average score is 68%

0%

Module 1C

/92

DS Module 1C - Working in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1C - Working in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

1 / 92

1) What is involved in a Chemical, Biological, Radiological, or Nuclear (CBRN) attack?

2 / 92

2) What is a key benefit of using CCTV in a security role?

3 / 92

3) What information relating to witnesses must be included in an incident report?

4 / 92

4) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that can convey emotion?

5 / 92

5) What is a primary purpose of the private security industry?

6 / 92

6) What is a key reason to show professional behavior?

7 / 92

7) How do assignment instructions benefit the security operative's relationship with the client?

8 / 92

8) Which of the following ensures fire safety when storing flammable substances?

9 / 92

9) What must a security operative do to protect a victim of sexual assault?

10 / 92

10) What defines "necessary force"?

11 / 92

11) In which of the following situations is effective communication essential?

12 / 92

12) When dealing with an upset customer, which action helps resolve the situation?

13 / 92

13) How does working as a team affect a security team's safety?

14 / 92

14) What is a key benefit for security operatives of reflecting on an incident?

15 / 92

15) Which of the following is an example of using calming verbal communication in a professional setting?

16 / 92

16) An attack is classified as having a low threat level when it is:

17 / 92

17) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

18 / 92

18) What is the correct way to describe how an incident unfolded in a report?

19 / 92

19) Which class of fire involves materials like paper, wood, and textiles?

20 / 92

20) Why must security operatives record injury details in the accident book?

21 / 92

21) What is the definition of a workplace hazard?

22 / 92

22) When encountering a suspicious large vehicle, what is the recommended safe distance to maintain?

23 / 92

23) Once a building is evacuated, what is the fire marshal's next step?

24 / 92

24) How should a security operative apply a graduated response during an emergency?

25 / 92

25) What is a major danger associated with working alone?

26 / 92

26) Which of the following is NOT one of the 4 Cs (Clear, Concise, Complete, Correct)?

27 / 92

27) Which of the following is an example of an external customer?

28 / 92

28) When is the use of force appropriate?

29 / 92

29) Under equal opportunities legislation, in which area are employers required to ensure fair treatment?

30 / 92

30) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

31 / 92

31) Upon discovering a fire, what is the immediate first action?

32 / 92

32) How can individuals best protect their private information?

33 / 92

33) In the Four Cs procedure (often used for suspicious items), what does the 'confirm' step involve?

34 / 92

34) Which of the following factors helps improve staff safety practices?

35 / 92

35) Which of the following factors makes an individual vulnerable?

36 / 92

36) Which of the following is an example of hostile reconnaissance?

37 / 92

37) What is the primary goal of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS)?

38 / 92

38) What is a key principle of data protection regulation?

39 / 92

39) Which of the following are appropriate behaviors when managing an emergency?

40 / 92

40) Which of the following is classified as a Class B fire?

41 / 92

41) Which of the following is an appropriate response when observing suspicious behavior on public transport?

42 / 92

42) Under current Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR), which of the following must be reported?

43 / 92

43) In emergency terms, which of the following is an example of an accident?

44 / 92

44) What type of sign indicates the presence of a hazardous chemical?

45 / 92

45) What is a significant risk associated with lone working in the private security industry?

46 / 92

46) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

47 / 92

47) What is a significant consequence a security operative might face for making a false arrest?

48 / 92

48) What is a primary function of the Security Industry Authority (SIA)?

49 / 92

49) What is a limitation of CCTV in the security operative role?

50 / 92

50) In a crowded space, what is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

51 / 92

51) When making arrests, security officers:

52 / 92

52) Under the Health and Safety at Work etc. Act, what is an employer's responsibility?

53 / 92

53) Which of the following organizations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

54 / 92

54) Which of the following is an example of a community safety initiative that can enhance security for operatives?

55 / 92

55) What firefighting equipment should be used for small kitchen fires, such as a clothing fire or a pan fire?

56 / 92

56) Which of the following is a key element in preventing anti-social behavior?

57 / 92

57) In the event of a serious incident, what is the immediate priority for ensuring safety?

58 / 92

58) Security operatives must understand the extent of CCTV coverage to:

59 / 92

59) What is a benefit of teamwork for security operatives seeking to improve their practices?

60 / 92

60) What is the correct procedure for documenting and reporting workplace accidents or health and safety incidents?

61 / 92

61) Which of the following is a fundamental principle of evacuation?

62 / 92

62) What does a firefighting safety sign typically indicate?

63 / 92

63) What is the second step to take when making an arrest?

64 / 92

64) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is NOT recommended?

65 / 92

65) What three elements are essential for a fire to exist?

66 / 92

66) Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for a security operative to make an arrest?

67 / 92

67) Which of the following is NOT an example of duty of care?

68 / 92

68) Which of the following is a potential indicator that an individual is being abused?

69 / 92

69) How can access to support aid security operatives after an incident?

70 / 92

70) Which of the following roles requires an up-to-date license under the current Private Security Act?

71 / 92

71) When observing suspicious activity that doesn't demand an immediate response, what is the appropriate action?

72 / 92

72) What must a security operative do when preparing to present evidence in court?

73 / 92

73) If an alarm sounds and smoke is visible from a nearby room, what type of emergency is most likely occurring?

74 / 92

74) Evaluating security incidents is crucial for identifying:

75 / 92

75) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

76 / 92

76) After making an arrest, what is the security operative's immediate primary responsibility?

77 / 92

77) Which of the following methods helps keep personal information safe?

78 / 92

78) Which of the following indicates predatory behavior?

79 / 92

79) Which fire extinguisher should be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

80 / 92

80) How does maintaining accurate records assist in legal situations?

81 / 92

81) What is a key purpose of a notebook for a security operative?

82 / 92

82) After making an arrest, evidence must be:

83 / 92

83) Which of the following is an example of a civil offense?

84 / 92

84) Which of the following situations is governed by equal opportunities legislation?

85 / 92

85) Which of the following behaviors suggests suspicious activity?

86 / 92

86) What is a primary characteristic of criminal law?

87 / 92

87) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

88 / 92

88) The purpose of the anti-terrorist hotline is to:

89 / 92

89) Which of the following must a security operative adhere to while on duty?

90 / 92

90) When using body-worn cameras, security operatives must ensure that the footage is:

91 / 92

91) Why is it crucial for security personnel to stay informed about current safety protocols?

92 / 92

92) What do the terms "run, hide, and tell" signify to a security operative during a terror threat?

Your score is

The average score is 68%

0%

Module 1D

/64

DS Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "Module 1D - Principles of Working in the PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

1 / 64

1) A key purpose of the Approved Contractor Scheme (ACS) is to:

2 / 64

2) Which of the following would support a customer who is having difficulty understanding the directions in a venue?

3 / 64

3) What is the first step to take when making an arrest?

4 / 64

4) Which of the following roles is required to have a licence under the Private Security Act?

5 / 64

5) Which of the following is a key principle of customer service?

6 / 64

6) What impact does teamwork have on the safety of a security team?

7 / 64

7) When dealing with a first-aid injury that a security operative is not trained to manage, what must they do?

8 / 64

8) Why is it important to remain calm when dealing with anti-social behaviour?

9 / 64

9) Which of the following is a limitation of CCTV?

10 / 64

10) According to equal opportunities legislation, in which of the following areas must employers ensure equal treatment?

11 / 64

11) Which of the following is a key reason for assessing the likelihood of risk for each hazard identified in the workplace?

12 / 64

12) Which of the following statements describes an evacuation?

13 / 64

13) Which of the following actions must be taken before attending court?

14 / 64

14) Which of the following signs indicates that there is a hazardous chemical in the area?

15 / 64

15) Which of the following is an example of a civil offence?

16 / 64

16) Which of the following is a key reason to follow assignment instructions in an emergency situation?

17 / 64

17) Which of the following is not a valid reason for a security operative to make a citizen's arrest?

18 / 64

18) Which of the following is a feature of the current Private Security Industry Act?

19 / 64

19) Which of the following factors is not an indicator of abuse?

20 / 64

20) Which of the following actions suggests an individual is engaging in hostile reconnaissance?

21 / 64

21) In the event of a terror attack, what must a security operative do? (This refers to the Run, Hide, Tell protocol)

22 / 64

22) What is the appropriate procedure for recording and reporting an accident or health and safety incident in the workplace?

23 / 64

23) According to the FIRE principles, what course of action must be taken in the event of a fire?

24 / 64

24) What is the main benefit of community safety initiatives?

25 / 64

25) A key reason to show professional behaviour is to:

26 / 64

26) When dealing with a suspicious item, what is the appropriate safety distance for a large vehicle?

27 / 64

27) A key benefit of reflecting on an incident is that it helps security operatives to:

28 / 64

28) Which of the following is a possible consequence of failing to access support after a stressful incident?

29 / 64

29) Which of the following is an example of written communication in the workplace?

30 / 64

30) Which diseases must be reported under Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR)?

31 / 64

31) Which of the following prevents a fire from continuing to burn? (Related to the 'fire triangle')

32 / 64

32) What is the first action a fire marshal needs to take when an emergency is identified?

33 / 64

33) Which of the following are appropriate behaviours when managing an emergency?

34 / 64

34) What does the term arrest generally mean?

35 / 64

35) What is the first step to take before lifting a heavy object?

36 / 64

36) Which of the following is a key reason to maintain accurate records?

37 / 64

37) In the Four Cs procedure (for suspicious items), which of the following describes the 'confirm' step?

38 / 64

38) Which of the following describes a critical threat level?

39 / 64

39) Which of the following is a common behaviour of sexual predators?

40 / 64

40) Which fire extinguisher must be used for a fire involving electrical equipment?

41 / 64

41) Which of the following is a key reason to use the phonetic alphabet in radio communication?

42 / 64

42) When encountering suspicious activity that does not require an immediate response, which of the following steps must be taken?

43 / 64

43) Which of the following actions is required to ensure CCTV use complies with data protection laws?

44 / 64

44) Which of the following qualities is required for security operatives to be effective?

45 / 64

45) What must an employee do if they experience an injury at work?

46 / 64

46) In a crowded space, which of the following is a key risk that security personnel need to be aware of during an emergency?

47 / 64

47) Which of the following methods is used to keep personal information safe?

48 / 64

48) If an individual is avoiding security personnel, it is typically a sign that they:

49 / 64

49) Which of the following organisations offers a confidential helpline for emotional support following a traumatic incident?

50 / 64

50) What role does the private security industry play in ensuring safety?

51 / 64

51) Under common law, a security operative can make an arrest following:

52 / 64

52) Which of the following is potentially a terror threat?

53 / 64

53) Why is it important to apply a duty of care equally?

54 / 64

54) Which of the following is an effective way to prevent a fire caused by faulty electrical equipment?

55 / 64

55) Which of the following is an appropriate action when responding to suspicious behaviour?

56 / 64

56) When assisting a vulnerable individual, which of the following actions is not recommended?

57 / 64

57) Which of the following is a key indicator of child sexual exploitation?

58 / 64

58) If other options are available, arrests should be avoided because they:

59 / 64

59) Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication?

60 / 64

60) In emergency terms, what is the definition of an occurrence?

61 / 64

61) Which type of record is used to document injuries on site?

62 / 64

62) Which of the following methods do the SIA use to raise standards in the private security industry?

63 / 64

63) When handling an allegation of sexual assault, what is the first action a security operative must do?

64 / 64

64) Which of the following is a key principle of data protection regulation?

Your score is

The average score is 77%

0%

Module 2

/70

DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 2 - Working as DS in PSI" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

1 / 70

1) After an arrest, you are required to:

2 / 70

2) The following should always be taken into account when searching individuals:

3 / 70

3) The Police can take the following enforcement measures against licensed premises.

4 / 70

4) What are the specific circumstances in which a 16 or 17-year-old can legally consume alcohol on licensed premises in the UK?

5 / 70

5) The types of searches are:

6 / 70

6) When an intoxicated person is part of a group and denied entry, their primary concern is that they:

7 / 70

7) To what class of drug does ecstasy belong?

8 / 70

8) The responsibilities of a designated premises supervisor encompass:

9 / 70

9) Which of the following is not considered unlawful behavior on a licensed premise?

10 / 70

10) Communicating with customers about the queue during busy times is important because:

11 / 70

11) When a door supervisor notices a customer with narrowed, dilated pupils, this is generally a sign of:

12 / 70

12) How can the capacity of a venue be best managed?

13 / 70

13) When a door supervisor encounters a substantial quantity of illegal drugs on a patron and has grounds to suspect the patron's involvement in drug distribution within the establishment, what actions should they take?

14 / 70

14) What is the benefit of using body – worn cameras (BWC)?

15 / 70

15) The following method is used to keep the public informed of the current terrorist threat level:

16 / 70

16) What is the criminological term for a violent assault that causes substantial physical injury?

17 / 70

17) During which times should security door staff monitor the lines or queues?

18 / 70

18) Door supervisors are tasked with overseeing the venue's occupancy. What criteria can be regarded as a legitimate means of assessing this monitoring?

19 / 70

19) What type of criminal offense has been committed if a customer is caught taking another customer's handbag by a door supervisor?

20 / 70

20) It is against the law to engage in the following behaviors or acts on licensed premises:

21 / 70

21) How can door supervisors ensure that the evidence at a crime scene is not tampered with?

22 / 70

22) What are some examples of incidents that door supervisors must always report to the police?

23 / 70

23) Door supervisors are responsible for:

24 / 70

24) What is the most reliable approach for disposing of a blood-contaminated item at a venue?

25 / 70

25) The best course of action to take when faced with a large crowd waiting to get into a place is to:

26 / 70

26) If a customer refuses a search, how should a door supervisor handle a customer?

27 / 70

27) A customer who refuses to leave the premises upon request is involved in:

28 / 70

28) What are the best practices for disposing of drug-related litter and waste to minimize the risk of harm to others?

29 / 70

29) Under which category of evidence does CCTV belong?

30 / 70

30) Which of the following illegal drugs is considered to be the most serious drug offense in terms of penalties?

31 / 70

31) What types of evidence could a door supervisor potentially offer when they have personally observed an incident?

32 / 70

32) What are your next steps after discovering a suspicious-looking package near a fire exit?

33 / 70

33) What are three important guidelines for carrying out searches of people and property in a lawful and ethical manner?

34 / 70

34) An item designed, altered, or with the intent to cause harm to a person is classified as:

35 / 70

35) Protecting children and youth from harm can be identified as an element of:

36 / 70

36) What are the key responsibilities of a door supervisor when responding to an incident?

37 / 70

37) What are some of the most important things that door supervisors should keep in mind when managing a queue?

38 / 70

38) What factors should door supervisors keep in mind when conducting a search?

39 / 70

39) During a search, if a door supervisor notices an item attached to a set of keys that looks similar to a letter opener and is approximately 2.5 inches long, the most appropriate action to take would be to:

40 / 70

40) Prior to conducting a search on an individual, the door supervisor is required to:

41 / 70

41) The expected outcomes of implementing a dispersal policy at a licensed venue is to

42 / 70

42) Which of the following is not a typical indicator that someone is under the influence of cocaine?

43 / 70

43) What Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is the most suitable for handling confiscated drugs?

44 / 70

44) It is recommended that you follow these guidelines when carrying out a search:

45 / 70

45) In what circumstances would you generally call the police?

46 / 70

46) If your admission policy specifies a general search policy, it implies that:

47 / 70

47) An individual with dilated pupils is a common sign of:

48 / 70

48) What is the appropriate course of action if you discover that someone is possessing a Class B drug?

49 / 70

49) Which of the following is a significant warning sign for a potential sexual predator?

50 / 70

50) If you encounter a group of individuals exhibiting disruptive behavior while in a queue, what would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

51 / 70

51) What are some effective ways to manage crowd density in licensed premises?

52 / 70

52) What is the most effective approach for a newly assigned door supervisor at a venue to learn the appropriate steps to take in case of an incident or accident?

53 / 70

53) Door supervisors are entrusted with:

54 / 70

54) The most commonly reported crimes to door supervisors are:

55 / 70

55) As per legal regulations, who is not allowed to evict or refuse entry to a venue?

56 / 70

56) Which of the following actions are appropriate to take when the terrorism threat level is elevated?

57 / 70

57) Queue management that is effective should consistently:

58 / 70

58) For the secure disposal of a blood-stained tissue, it is recommended to wear disposable gloves and dispose of it in the following way:

59 / 70

59) What is the primary reason for documenting a search?

60 / 70

60) Which of the following activities would be considered gaming?

61 / 70

61) What advantage is gained by utilizing body-worn cameras (BWC)?

62 / 70

62) Door supervisors need to make sure that the number of people in a venue does not exceed its maximum capacity. Which of the following is a good way to do this?

63 / 70

63) The anticipation is that efficient communication with customers while they are in the queue will:

64 / 70

64) It is best to maintain a record of all incidents.

65 / 70

65) To which of the following scenarios is it not required to include documentation in a report?

66 / 70

66) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer to conduct a search, with the condition that it should be done in a private area, what tools or equipment would be most suitable for facilitating the search?

67 / 70

67) Door Supervisors may be responsible for the following after an incident:

68 / 70

68) What is the most severe penalty that can be imposed for possession of a class A drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act?

69 / 70

69) If a door supervisor has received consent from a customer for a search and the customer asks for a private room for the search, what equipment would be the most appropriate for conducting the search?

70 / 70

70) Which of the following offenses would be considered a civil offense?

Your score is

The average score is 72%

0%

Module 3

/50

DS Module 3 - Conflict Management

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 3 - Conflict Management" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

1 / 50

1) Can you provide an example of a behavior that acts as an inhibitor from the following options?

2 / 50

2) What is one of the key objectives of assessing incidents of work-related violence?’

3 / 50

3) Which of the following nonverbal behaviors are associated with non-aggression?

4 / 50

4) It is essential to keep the following in mind when evicting someone from licensed premises:

5 / 50

5) Who is the best person for a security operative to reach out to for professional guidance in serious matters?

6 / 50

6) Empathy means being able to:

7 / 50

7) Which one of these is most likely to make people argue or fight?

8 / 50

8) Which of these is an appropriate course of action when confronted with unacceptable behavior?

9 / 50

9) If a staff member does not follow workplace violence policies, they

10 / 50

10) If an employee blocks a customer's way out, the customer can:

11 / 50

11) Security operatives must provide exit paths for customers because:

12 / 50

12) One way to make a conflict situation less tense is to:

13 / 50

13) What is the most mutually beneficial approach to conflict resolution?

14 / 50

14) Which of the following options provides expert assistance to a person who has been affected by workplace violence?

15 / 50

15) A frequent cause of aggression is:

16 / 50

16) What are the reasons why we should minimize the use of force?

17 / 50

17) The most likely sign that a customer is getting angry is when they:

18 / 50

18) Staff members who do not follow the rules for dealing with workplace violence may:

19 / 50

19) What is the most likely factor to prevent an angry reaction?

20 / 50

20) What are the two halves of the brain that are responsible for the most important functions?

21 / 50

21) What factor is most likely to trigger an angry response from customers?

22 / 50

22) What is a well-known response of someone who feels threatened?

23 / 50

23) When an angry customer and an employee agree to resolve a situation peacefully, it could be described as:

24 / 50

24) When two customers are having a dispute about a personal issue, what's the best way to calm things down?

25 / 50

25) What is the primary way that giving a gift can help to resolve a conflict?

26 / 50

26) If a customer comes to you, feeling really mad and upset because another worker was mean to them when they talked, the right thing to do is:

27 / 50

27) When you have a conflict with someone, you might feel:

28 / 50

28) When you are in a conflict, you might feel:

29 / 50

29) The primary advantage of resolving issues with a customer is that:

30 / 50

30) Which of the following is categorized as an inhibitor?

31 / 50

31) It is important for security operatives to try and view a situation from the customer's point of view because it will:

32 / 50

32) Which of these statements is likely to be seen as positive and cause the least conflict?

33 / 50

33) What are the positive outcomes of a dynamic risk assessment?

34 / 50

34) What are the most common causes of conflict?

35 / 50

35) A common cause of aggression is when a person feels:

36 / 50

36) The security person must show the way out to the customer because:

37 / 50

37) Among these options, which one is the riskiest in a conflict situation?

38 / 50

38) The Attitude and Behavioral Cycle (ABC) shows that:

39 / 50

39) A strategy of an exit is used for;

40 / 50

40) Peer pressure is an example of a:

41 / 50

41) When people communicate in a positive way during a conflict, they are more likely to:

42 / 50

42) Which of the following is the most likely thing a customer will do when they are in a conflict situation?

43 / 50

43) Shouting at a customer in a conflict situation is likely to result in:

44 / 50

44) What is the most compelling reason for ensuring that victims of workplace violence have access to professional assistance and support in the wake of an incident?

45 / 50

45) Why is it crucial to report all incidents of violence?

46 / 50

46) Which of the following is a way to solve problems?

47 / 50

47) Which of these could be a method for fixing issues with a customer?

48 / 50

48) A workplace violence policy for an organization should recommend that any use of force by employees is:

49 / 50

49) Which of the following would be considered as a ‘block to communication’?

50 / 50

50) The rules about violence at work should say that if staff need to use force, it should be:

Your score is

The average score is 72%

0%

Module 4

/69

DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention

Please enter the password below to start the "DS Module 4 - Physical Intervention" mock test.

Please enter Course ID, your Full Name and the Email Address

1 / 69

1) Which of the following statements is accurate after a violent incident?

2 / 69

2) What is the most significant risk factor for harm or death?

3 / 69

3) What are the life-saving measures a door supervisor should take if a restrained customer loses consciousness?

4 / 69

4) Extended physical involvement can lead to an increase in:

5 / 69

5) What is the reason for security personnel to document an incident by writing a report?

6 / 69

6) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention among the following options?

7 / 69

7) What is the definition of secondary control alternatives to physical intervention?

8 / 69

8) When physical intervention is used, dynamic risk assessments allow for:

9 / 69

9) Continuous risk assessments should be used during physical intervention to:

10 / 69

10) In order to ensure the safety of an individual during a physical intervention, it's essential to observe for indications of:

11 / 69

11) It is essential for a door supervisor to continually uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

12 / 69

12) As an alternative to physical intervention, what can door supervisors utilize?

13 / 69

13) Recognizing acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) involves:

14 / 69

14) If a door supervisor fails to upkeep their physical intervention skills, the most probable outcome is:

15 / 69

15) What are the legal consequences of using physical force inappropriately?

16 / 69

16) What factors among the following might elevate the hazards for an individual undergoing restraint?

17 / 69

17) What is a potential danger linked to extended physical intervention from the options provided?

18 / 69

18) What is a potential risk factor associated with the use of physical intervention from the options provided?

19 / 69

19) For what reasons should door staff debrief following a violent incident?

20 / 69

20) What is the definition of the term Dynamic Risk Assessment?

21 / 69

21) Who is in charge of the person after they have been physically restrained?

22 / 69

22) Engaging in physical intervention entails certain associated risks. Which of the following represents one such risk?

23 / 69

23) What is a key difference between defensive physical skills and physical intervention?

24 / 69

24) How else would you describe the restraint of holding someone face down on the ground?

25 / 69

25) What are the most important factors to consider when developing strategies to minimize the risk of harm during physical intervention?

26 / 69

26) What sets defensive skills apart from physical intervention?

27 / 69

27) What position is most likely to cause positional asphyxia during physical restraint?

28 / 69

28) What are the duties and obligations of a door supervisor after they have used physical intervention?

29 / 69

29) Door supervisors can minimize the potential for harm during physical interventions by:

30 / 69

30) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor could consider is:

31 / 69

31) What are the best practices for minimizing the risk of injury during physical intervention?

32 / 69

32) It is crucial for a door supervisor to uphold their knowledge and skills in physical intervention because:

33 / 69

33) Which of the following statements is false? Dynamic Risk Assessment has the capability to:

34 / 69

34) What effective alternative to physical intervention could a door supervisor employ?

35 / 69

35) Which two factors decide the legality of the force applied?

36 / 69

36) What does the term restrictive physical intervention mean?

37 / 69

37) What indicates a sign or symptom of acute behavioral disturbance (ABD) from the options provided?

38 / 69

38) What steps should an employer take if their establishment has a significant risk of restraints leading to a ground situation?

39 / 69

39) Which of the following signs or symptoms can be used to identify acute behavioral disturbance (ABD)?

40 / 69

40) What risk is associated with flooring a customer during restraint?

41 / 69

41) A dynamic risk assessment is conducted during physical interventions in order to:

42 / 69

42) What is the legally permissible extent of force that can be employed in the role of a Door Supervisor?

43 / 69

43) During a ground-based physical intervention, what is the most probable risk among the following options?

44 / 69

44) What does the word Static mean?

45 / 69

45) When conducting physical interventions on the ground, the potential for customer harm can be minimized by:

46 / 69

46) An indication or symptom of positional asphyxia includes:

47 / 69

47) At what point should a door supervisor create a report after a violent occurrence?

48 / 69

48) In the event of a prolonged physical intervention, the door supervisor's primary risk is likely to be that:

49 / 69

49) In the event that an intervention leads to a ground situation, what actions should security personnel take to reduce risk?

50 / 69

50) One potential danger of prolonged physical intervention is that the:

51 / 69

51) What does the term "primary control alternatives to physical intervention" mean?

52 / 69

52) Using physical intervention incorrectly can lead to legal consequences, which are:

53 / 69

53) Which circumstances increase the risk of positional asphyxia?

54 / 69

54) A substitute for physical intervention that a door supervisor might consider is:

55 / 69

55) Using physical intervention incorrectly is most likely to result in what professional implication for the door supervisor from the options provided?

56 / 69

56) After a physical intervention, the responsibility of a door supervisor is to:

57 / 69

57) What is one risk factor associated with the utilization of physical intervention from the options below?

58 / 69

58) In a physical intervention, it is the responsibility of all staff to:

59 / 69

59) What is the greatest danger to a person during a physical intervention that takes place on the ground?

60 / 69

60) Physical interventions on the ground pose a significantly higher risk of injury to the customer.

61 / 69

61) To ensure the safety of a person during a physical intervention, you would observe:

62 / 69

62) A critical duty for all individuals engaged in a physical intervention is to:

63 / 69

63) What is the most suitable course of action to take if a physical intervention results in going to the ground?

64 / 69

64) If a door supervisor does not maintain their physical intervention skills, they are more likely to:

65 / 69

65) After a physical intervention, door supervisors must:

66 / 69

66) How do defensive skills differ from physical intervention?

67 / 69

67) High temperature during a physical intervention can be a sign of:

68 / 69

68) To lessen the risk of harm to a customer during ground-based physical interventions, one can:

69 / 69

69) In order to ensure an individual's safety during a physical intervention, it's important to watch for indications of:

Your score is

The average score is 70%

0%