1) The most suitable response to a disclosure of sexual abuse is to notify:

2) Good communication with customers at every stage of the queuing process is anticipated to:

3) A primary goal within the licensing objectives is to:

4) When handling a queue, it is the duty of a door supervisor to:

5) A drunk person is denied access to a gathering and seems exposed. The primary concern for this individual is that they:

6) When an individual is recognized as vulnerable in a town center, what course of action is recommended?

7) In order to maintain safety at a venue, door supervisors must give priority to ensuring:

8) Successful queue control allows you to:

9) Under what circumstances is it permissible for a 16 or 17-year-old to consume specific types of alcohol on licensed premises?

10) What types of documents can a door supervisor acknowledge as proof of age?

11) When removing a vulnerable individual, the primary consideration is:

12) One of the key duties of the door supervisor is to:

13) When someone knowingly serves alcohol to an underage person, who is committing an offense?

14) In which of the following situations would the presence of a vulnerable individual be indicated?

15) What among the following would be prohibited in a pub or club?

16) Among the following options, which accurately describes the lawful entry of the police?

17) It is the responsibility of license holders and their representatives, including door supervisors, to make sure that

18) At what times should security door staff monitor queries?

19) As per the Gambling Act (2005):

20) Following a door supervisor's request to vacate the premises, a customer declines. The customer is now:

21) The presence of a dispersal policy at the licensed venue is likely to:

22) Under legal circumstances, a door supervisor can expel a customer from a venue when:

23) Which of the following is considered a licensing objective?

24) The most effective way to discourage anti-social behavior is to implement:

25) A likely sign of physical abuse is someone who has:

26) In the operating schedule of a premises license, who needs to be mentioned?

27) What behavior is most likely to indicate the presence of a sexual predator among the following?

28) Security operatives must take care of vulnerable people to:

29) The main reason for a door supervisor to control access queues is to:

1) The key consideration when expelling a person at risk is:

2) Monitoring customers in a queue and identifying issues is most effectively done through:

3) Effective communication with customers during the queuing process is likely to:

4) When addressing a large crowd awaiting access, with no one needing to sacrifice, the most appreciated action to undertake is:

5) What among the following would be prohibited in a pub or club?

6) When refused entry to a drunk person, who appears vulnerable. The most considerable risk to the individual is that they:

7) One advantage of managing the entry queue to a venue is that it:

8) What proof of age is acceptable to a door supervisor from the following?

9) Door supervisors must keep tabs on venue capacity. What valid criteria among these would be suitable for monitoring?

10) Legally, a door supervisor can expel a customer from a venue when:

11) The key reason customers should leave the immediate vicinity of the licensed venue after closing is:

12) Door supervisors are accountable for:

13) To identify antisocial behavior, the recommended methods are to carry out:

14) In the process of handling a queue, a door supervisor should:

15) License holders have the authority to decide on:

16) Among the following, which is recognized as a licensing objective?

17) For what legislation is it most probable that a police officer will access licensed premises?

18) As per the Gambling Act of 2005 states that:

19) An individual exhibiting the effects of alcohol or drugs is likely to be categorized as:

20) Under which circumstances would it be legal for a young person to consume an alcoholic beverage?

21) Identify the licensing objective from the options provided below.

22) The refusal of a customer to leave the venue when requested is an act of:

23) When faced with a disclosure of sexual abuse, the proper response is to notify:

24) When a security operative finds a person sleeping rough, the best course of action is to:

25) What behavior from the options below is most likely to indicate the presence of a sexual predator?

26) The most common signal of physical abuse is evident when someone has:

27) Who commits an offense when they are aware they are serving alcohol to someone below the legal age?

28) The designated premises supervisor (DPS) is accountable for:

29) The security operation must attend to the needs of vulnerable individuals in order to:

1) Diminishing the principal's shield of protection:

2) Operating within the protective formation, the PPO will:

3) When conditions necessitate who drives the change an operational shift, it will likely be the

4) Every instance of force employed by security personnel requires to:

5) An additional potential danger to the principal is:

6) The best way to protect a principal team without resorting to physical intervention strategy is:

7) Physical force should be reserved for situations where other options have been exhausted because

8) Upon a confirmed threat, the protective circle around the principal and PPO needs to be tightened, enabling the

9) When the principal faces a physical threat, prompting a location change for the meet and greet by the TL. What immediate support can the SAP offer in this revised situation?

10) In the event of a security threat, the PES team's primary duty is to:

11) In case of an assault on a security team member, their response force should be:

12) What are the worst potential outcomes when communication fails in high-risk scenarios?

13) Increase clarity and reduce ambiguity in communication, lead to:

14) What are the primary factors a security team needs to ponder when managing an incident?

15) Which of the following is a role of the personal protection operation (PPO) during a protective formation?

16) Considering the principal's decision to walk, what are the main factors the PES team needs to prioritize while maintaining their protective formation?

17) In order to use force against another person, it must be:

18) The repeated presence of someone taking pictures raises concerns about their intentions indicates that:

19) When communication is ineffective in high-risk situations, what is the most likely negative impact?

20) Large-scale media coverage has led to limitations on vehicle access to the venue, which is likely to disrupt the:

21) Justified force can be applied when:

22) A shared nonverbal communication system between the principal and security team facilitates effective interaction in

23) The principal has granted access to fans for autographs and photographs. Which of the following would provide the greatest risk of embarrassment to the principal?

24) The greatest risk to the principal's well-being comes from:

25) Neutralizing a potential danger to the principal's safety:

26) In the event of a confirmed physical threat to the principal, what assistance will be provided by the personal escort section (PES) team?

27) Excessive use of restraint could result in:

28) Potential characteristics of the secondary threat are:

1) During operation planning, it's crucial to consistently pinpoint:

2) What advantage does utilizing a venue's internal resources offer for supporting venue security?

3) In which scenarios would utilizing a paper-based map be most advantageous?

4) A standard precaution integrated into a venue-based close protection operation is:

5) At a venue, who can be used as a close protection counter measure?

6) What among the following does reconnaissance not aim to achieve?

7) What element is prone to have the most impact on security protocols at a venue?

8) When performing a reconnaissance of the principal's accommodation venue, what factors should be taken into account?

9) Which team is best equipped to assist the Personal Protection Officer (PPO) while on foot, following the principal's sudden request for a change of venue?

10) While walking, the primary duty of a close protection operative to their principal is to:

11) The primary aim of surveillance is to:

12) Which of these pertains to interpersonal skills?

13) If the terrorism threat level in the UK was severe, it would signify that an attack is:

14) Profiling the principal is important when determining the threat level and related risk in order to:

15) What is the significance of principal profiling in close protection?

17) A breach of the peace would typically be prosecuted through:

18) One of the primary objectives of the Private Security Industry Act (2001) is to:

19) One duty of a close protection team when reacting to a threat against the principal is to:

20) Which equipment would be most useful for inspecting the undersides of vehicles?

21) Which among the following characteristics is crucial for a close protection operative?

22) One drawback of utilizing the internet is:

24) In a close protection scenario, what could pose a potential danger to a principal?

25) Which among these would you exclude when considering and scheduling a route via rail for your principal?

26) The essential qualities of an effective team are:

27) The primary objective of anti-surveillance is to:

28) Technical surveillance countermeasures (TSCM) aids in supporting the:

29) What abilities are necessary when engaging in communication with the principal?

30) The most probable origin of unwanted attention typically arises from:

31) When handling an incident, it's imperative for the close protection team to ensure that:

32) The objective of selecting and planning routes is to:

33) Identifying communication black spots within a venue is crucial because:

34) Which agency among the following would be irrelevant to contact during operation planning?

35) When conducting a reconnaissance of a sizable shopping complex, what factors must be considered?

36) What technological tool can be used for planning routes among the following options?

37) Your team leader (TL) has assigned you to inspect the principal's vehicle. The appropriate method for this search is:

38) Efficient time management is likely to guarantee that:

39) An assessment of threats is crucial because:

40) What responsibilities might a solo close protection operative handle?

41) Principals in need of close protection are invariably:

42) A close protection operative should participate in ongoing professional development (CPD) endeavors in order to:

43) What among the following constitutes an indictable offense?

44) What attribute is a mandatory requirement for all close protection operatives?

45) The primary goal of close protection training and licensing is to elevate the:

46) The goal of integrating the SIA License is to:

47) The primary objective of close protection is most accurately described as:

48) The client is an individual who:

50) The objective of counter-surveillance is to:

51) The primary role of the Security Industry Authority (SIA) is to:

52) You need to choose the most suitable transport for your principal, who has complex medical conditions. Which of the following factors would probably influence your decision the most?

1) In a conflict situation, shouting at a customer will most likely leads to:

2) Conflict is most likely to be caused by:

3) A negative response to a conflict situation could be feeling:

4) A way of potentially de-escalating a conflict situation is to:

5) Which of the following factors is most likely to cause an angry response in customers?

6) If a member of staff ignores workplace violence policies, they:

7) Which of the following is classed as an inhibitor?

8) An angry and upset customer approaches you to report that hey have been spoken to in an unacceptable manner by another employee. The best way of dealing with this situation is to:

9) Which of the following is the most likely response from a customer to a conflict situation?

10) Which of the following is a strategy for solving problems?

11) In a conflict situation, which of the following holds the most risk?

12) The most likely effect of positive communication in a conflict situation is that the:

13) Empathy is the ability to:

14) The Attitude and Behavioural Cycle identifies that:

15) The most likely indication that a customer is becoming angry is that they:

16) A response to a conflict situation could be feeling:

17) Which of the following might be a way of solving problems with a customer?

18) Which of the following is most likely to cause conflict?

19) It is important that the security operative provides an exit path for the customer because:

20) Which of the following statements is positive and least likely to cause conflict?

21) The most likely benefit of problem solving with a customer is that:

22) Which of the following behaviours is an example of an inhibitor?

23) If a member of staff ignores workplace violence policies they:

24) Two customers are arguing over a personal matter. What action is most likely to defuse the situation?